Call No Man Father

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This was posed to me today as a scriptural statement that proves Catholics do not follow scripture. Is there any articles or comments on this that I can refute this statement with on Catholic.com? Or just any comments in general to stop this man from utilizing this statement?
 
did you check to see who he was referring to when he spoke those words?? They were the pharisees and Scribes who refuse to believe in certain things that God had promised. They weren’t of God. There are many example throughout the OT and NT calling the elders Father as a sign of respect.
 
This was posed to me today as a scriptural statement that proves Catholics do not follow scripture. Is there any articles or comments on this that I can refute this statement with on Catholic.com? Or just any comments in general to stop this man from utilizing this statement?
Call No Man Your Father

Matthew 23:8-10
8"But you are not to be called ‘Rabbi,’ (Gr. rabbi) for you have only one Master (Gr. didaskalos, kathegetes) and you are all brothers. 9And do not call anyone on earth ‘father,’ (Gr. patera) for you have one Father (Gr. pater), and he is in heaven. 10Nor are you to be called ‘teacher,’ (Gr. kathegetai) for you have one Teacher (Gr. kathegetes), the Christ.” (NIV)

Matthew 23:8-10
8”But be not ye called Rabbi (Gr. rabbi): for one is your Master (Gr. didaskalos, kathegetes), even Christ; and all ye are brethren. 9And call no man your father (Gr. patera) upon the earth: for one is your Father (Gr. pater), which is in heaven. 10Neither be ye called masters (Gr. kathegetai) : for one is your Master (Gr. kathegetes), even Christ.” (KJV)

Based on the preceding passage, many non-Catholics claim that the Catholic Church violates the scriptural prohibition against calling anyone “father” since its priests are commonly called “father” and the pope is referred to as the “Holy Father.” Is this really what the Bible teaches? Let’s take a closer look at this issue by reviewing not just a single verse but all that the Bible contains on this subject.

Ephesians 4:11-13
11It was he who gave some to be apostles, some to be prophets, some to be evangelists, and some to be pastors and teachers (Gr. didaskalovs), 12to prepare God’s people for works of service, so that the body of Christ may be built up 13until we all reach unity in the faith and in the knowledge of the Son of God and become mature, attaining to the whole measure of the fullness of Christ.

Paul, under the inspiration of the Holy Spirit, says that God has established some people as “teachers” in the Church; this appears to be a direct violation of Jesus’ prohibition against calling anyone “teacher”. Does God contradict Himself?

James 3:1
1Not many of you should presume to be teachers (Gr. didaskaloi), my brothers, because you know that we who teach will be judged more strictly.

James, under the inspiration of the Holy Spirit, says that not many believers should presume to be “teachers.” This implies that a few (though not many) should and would rightfully have that position. Does God contradict Himself?

Luke 16:24
24So he called to him, “Father (Gr. pater) Abraham, have pity on me and send Lazarus to dip the tip of his finger in water and cool my tongue, because I am in agony in this fire.”

Jesus tells a parable in which He has one of the characters speak to “Father Abraham” which would obviously be a bad example for His audience. Does Jesus contradict Himself?

(cont.)
 
Romans 4:1-18
1What then shall we say that Abraham, our forefather, discovered in this matter? 2If, in fact, Abraham was justified by works, he had something to boast about—but not before God. 3What does the Scripture say? “Abraham believed God, and it was credited to him as righteousness.”
4Now when a man works, his wages are not credited to him as a gift, but as an obligation. 5However, to the man who does not work but trusts God who justifies the wicked, his faith is credited as righteousness. 6David says the same thing when he speaks of the blessedness of the man to whom God credits righteousness apart from works:
7"Blessed are they whose transgressions are forgiven, whose sins are covered. 8Blessed is the man whose sin the Lord will never count against him."
9Is this blessedness only for the circumcised, or also for the uncircumcised? We have been saying that Abraham’s faith was credited to him as righteousness. 10Under what circumstances was it credited? Was it after he was circumcised, or before? It was not after, but before! 11And he received the sign of circumcision, a seal of the righteousness that he had by faith while he was still uncircumcised. So then, he is the father (Gr. patera) of all who believe but have not been circumcised, in order that righteousness might be credited to them. 12And he is also the father of the circumcised who not only are circumcised but who also walk in the footsteps of the faith that our father Abraham had before he was circumcised.
13It was not through law that Abraham and his offspring received the promise that he would be heir of the world, but through the righteousness that comes by faith. 14For if those who live by law are heirs, faith has no value and the promise is worthless, 15because law brings wrath. And where there is no law there is no transgression.
16Therefore, the promise comes by faith, so that it may be by grace and may be guaranteed to all Abraham’s offspring—not only to those who are of the law but also to those who are of the faith of Abraham. He is the father of us all. 17As it is written: “I have made you a father of many nations.” He is our father in the sight of God, in whom he believed—the God who gives life to the dead and calls things that are not as though they were.
18Against all hope, Abraham in hope believed and so became the father of many nations, just as it had been said to him, “So shall your offspring be.”

In this passage, Paul refers to Abraham as a spiritual father eight times. This is a terrible precedent to establish if Jesus has prohibited us from using the term “father.”

James 2:21
21Was not Abraham our father justified by works, when he had offered Isaac his son upon the altar?

James, under the inspiration of the Holy Spirit, refers to the spiritual fatherhood of Abraham. This is a terrible precedent to establish if Jesus has prohibited us from using the term “father.”

1 Corinthians 4:14-15
14I am not writing this to shame you, but to warn you, as my dear children. 15Even though you have ten thousand guardians in Christ, you do not have many fathers (Gr. pateras), for in Christ Jesus I became your father through the gospel.

In this passage, Paul refers to himself as the spiritual father of the Corinthians. This is a terrible precedent to establish if Jesus has prohibited us from using the term “father.”
 
Call No Man Father – Another View
Originally posted by Pax in the Catholic Answers Forum

In Jesus time, there were a number of Jewish sects: the Pharisees, Sadducees, Essenes, and Zealots.

These sects had schools or houses of teaching within them. Within the Pharisees there were two famous rival houses.
They were the House of Shammai and the House of Hillel. The individuals that these houses were named after were considered the “father” of the house.

Jesus warns the apostles not to be fathers to “separate” houses—for there is but one house of the Lord. Jesus also says to call no man “teacher” or “master.” This is interesting because the Apostle Paul was taught by Gamaliel (cf. Acts 22:3), a Pharisee from the House of Hillel. Gamaliel, the grandson of Hillel, was known as an elder and had the title of “Rabban” which means “Our Master.” This title explains why Jesus also said call no one “master”; there is but one house and one master of all. Jesus prayed for unity (cf. John 17) and did not want the apostles to set up separate houses or schools of thought.

This is clearly expressed in Paul’s complaint in 1 Corinthians 1:10-15 when he describes how some are arguing their superiority after being baptized by, and belonging to, Paul or Apollos, or Cephas, etc. Paul goes on elsewhere to warn against factions and divisions and stresses the importance of one mind and unity of doctrine.

The meaning of “call no man father, teacher, or master” concerns unity and consistency of doctrine and has nothing to do with the commonly used references that are seen elsewhere in scripture or everyday use.
 
This was posed to me today as a scriptural statement that proves Catholics do not follow scripture. Is there any articles or comments on this that I can refute this statement with on Catholic.com? Or just any comments in general to stop this man from utilizing this statement?
You could ask him what he called his own father. And what he called his teachers.
 
From my experience, your friend is grasping for straw. While this is a common objection from our protestant brethren, it is easily refuted. I believe Randy already listed the verses from scripture with a good explanation for you.
 
This was posed to me today as a scriptural statement that proves Catholics do not follow scripture. Is there any articles or comments on this that I can refute this statement with on Catholic.com? Or just any comments in general to stop this man from utilizing this statement?
I’ve never understood this desire to squelch the very words of Jesus the Christ, who said “call no man father”…
 
“I am the vine, you are the branches”
“To have seen me is to have seen the Father”
“I and the Father are one”
“and If by the finger of God I cast out demons,
the Kingdom of God has come upon you”
-Jesus
and he gave a man the keys. If the Kingdom of God has come upon us and the vine and the Father are one, how bout’ those branches?
 
This was posed to me today as a scriptural statement that proves Catholics do not follow scripture. Is there any articles or comments on this that I can refute this statement with on Catholic.com? Or just any comments in general to stop this man from utilizing this statement?
Christ also says to call no man Rabbi or Teacher.Context,friend,context.
 
I’ve never understood this desire to squelch the very words of Jesus the Christ, who said “call no man father”…
The Catholic Church doesn’t squelch Christ’s words. She preserves their authentic meaning against the whims of individuals.

– Mark L. Chance.
 
In his parable, doesn’t Jesus have the rich man addressing “Father” Abraham? How dare he! Remember, we are to 'call no man father!"

Does Jesus contradict Himself? I don’t think so. . .but then, I don’t think that the apostles James and John went out after that little talk and made sure that they spoke of Zebedee as “the man formerly known as our pop”. . .
 
In his parable, doesn’t Jesus have the rich man addressing “Father” Abraham? How dare he! Remember, we are to 'call no man father!"

Does Jesus contradict Himself? I don’t think so. . .but then, I don’t think that the apostles James and John went out after that little talk and made sure that they spoke of Zebedee as “the man formerly known as our pop”. . .
Why does St Paul refer to himself as “Your Father in Christ”?

This is exactly what you get with the principle of “personal”(read fallible) interpretation of Holy Scripture-ignorance and error.

St Peter was right.
 
I’ve never understood this desire to squelch the very words of Jesus the Christ, who said “call no man father”…
Then you won’t mind if we discuss (again) the fact that Jesus said, 'This is my body…this is my blood" and not “This represents my body…”

Or “You are Peter and upon this rock”

Or “Whatever you bind on earth is bound in heaven”

etc, etc.

Talk about squelching the very words of Jesus the Christ…

But I covered all this in my posts above. Let him who has ears…
 
Matt 1:
[2] Abraham was the father of Isaac, and Isaac the father of Jacob, and Jacob the father of Judah and his brothers,
[3] and Judah the father of Perez and Zerah by Tamar, and Perez the father of Hezron, and Hezron the father of Ram,
[4] and Ram the father of Ammin’adab, and Ammin’adab the father of Nahshon, and Nahshon the father of Salmon,
[5] and Salmon the father of Bo’az by Rahab, and Bo’az the father of Obed by Ruth, and Obed the father of Jesse,
[6] and Jesse the father of David the king. And David was the father of Solomon by the wife of Uri’ah,
[7] and Solomon the father of Rehobo’am, and Rehobo’am the father of Abi’jah, and Abi’jah the father of Asa,
[8] and Asa the father of Jehosh’aphat, and Jehosh’aphat the father of Joram, and Joram the father of Uzzi’ah,
[9] and Uzzi’ah the father of Jotham, and Jotham the father of Ahaz, and Ahaz the father of Hezeki’ah,
[10] and Hezeki’ah the father of Manas’seh, and Manas’seh the father of Amos, and Amos the father of Josi’ah,
[11] and Josi’ah the father of Jechoniah and his brothers, at the time of the deportation to Babylon.
[12] And after the deportation to Babylon: Jechoni’ah was the father of She-al’ti-el, and She-al’ti-el the father of Zerub’babel,
[13] and Zerub’babel the father of Abi’ud, and Abi’ud the father of Eli’akim, and Eli’akim the father of Azor,
[14] and Azor the father of Zadok, and Zadok the father of Achim, and Achim the father of Eli’ud,
[15] and Eli’ud the father of Elea’zar, and Elea’zar the father of Matthan, and Matthan the father of Jacob,
[16] and Jacob the father of Joseph the husband of Mary, of whom Jesus was born, who is called Christ.
How’d that get in the bible?

(I know, there are plenty of other examples as well :))
 
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