I explained my belief rather clearly: we hope, in the light of an infinitely merciful God, that that person can enter the Kingdom if he did God’s will, and we think, in the light of an omnipotent God, that God is not tied by His Sacraments, though they are the ordinary way.
If Baptism by water is not critically important, then I do not understand why the Forerunner, filled with the Holy Spirit even as an unborn, the greatest of all prophets, begun to baptize with water and was known as the Baptist ever since. I do not understand why Christ stepped down into the Jordan and, to John’s most natural objection, replied: “
it is proper for us to do this to fulfill all righteousness”. I do not understand why He spoke of being born of water and spirit. I do not understand why, after washing the disciple’s feet (a wonderful expression of the Sacrament of Reconciliation) He said: “
a person who has had a bath needs only to wash his feet; his whole body is clean.” I do not understand why Christians, ever since the very earliest times (see, for instance, the Didache book) have baptized by water (both by immersion and by aspersion).
Yes, it is a very protestant thing to say: all I need to do is close my eyes and think hard enough that I love the Lord in order to be saved. No disrespect for our beloved brothers in Christ, but we know what the Sacrament is, and we also know that Baptism works
ex opere operato.
I would appreciate, though, if I could verify where does your teaching on the requirement of baptism by desire is found in the corpus of our Sacred Tradition. I would also like to know the origin of your teaching, “it is not a known truth that baptism in water by an ordained minister acting in Persona Christi is a requirement to be saved”.
As for your double remark on what the Church teaches, do check out
this page: