I’m sorry but the evidence is to the contrary. All one has to do is look at the history of how different attempts have been made throughout the history of bible translations to see that this is not so. In 1. Cor. 6:9, you will find that when the dishonest term “homosexual” began to infect the scriptures, it took on the form “homosexual” with no other qualifiers before it or after it to distinguish that it was only talking about practicing homosexuals, as you claim. Later, different translations attempting to modiy their alteration used terms like “those who practice homosexuality”, “homosexual offenders”, “those who participate in homosexuality”. In fact if you look at the New King James Version, you will find that it uses the clearly dishonest and unscriptural term “sodomite.” This in itself is interesting, because if one presumes the false assumption that Sodom was destroyed because of homosexuality, the interesting thing is nowhere in Genesis or Jude is their any mention of “homosexual sex”, as you termed it. So in subscribing to what you wrote, you would have to conclude that Sodom got destroyed, not because of “homosexual sex” but rather for same-sex attraction. And that would clearly contradict your reasoning. When you look at the way people with a same-sex orientation have been treated throughout the ages, and consider the influence the Catholic Church has had within it’s historic writings in molding the prejudices towards gays, the warped imagery that the Christian society has regarding homosexuality is in every way influeced by the Catholic Church and its representatives. I’m sorry but your post above grossly distorts and oversimplifies the history between Catholicism and homosexuality, regardless of the current rhetoric of today’s Cathecism.
