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Can a Circle have an infinite diameter?
No.Can a Circle have an infinite diameter?
Yes, if it has an infinite radius and diameter.Can a Circle have an infinite diameter?
Which results in the same answer: no.Yes, if it has an infinite radius and diameter.
Does a circle of infinite circumference have a diameter?Which results in the same answer: no.
Because by its very definition, a circle is a CLOSED area, the graph of which defined as a set of points (x,y) on a cartesian plane, centered around coordinates (h,k) at a distance r that satisfy the equation
(x - h)^2 + (y - k)^2 = r^2
If r were of an infinite value, then no values x and y will ever satisfy the equation, so no circle graphing such an equation could ever exist.
If the circumference is infinite, there can be no curvature at all, else it would close.Does a circle of infinite circumference have a diameter?
I would think so…
And would the diameter be finite?
I would think not.
Which means the diameter must then be infinite.
Which contradicts your conclusion.
Where is the flaw?
“Nature is an infinite sphere whose center is everywhere and whose circumference is nowhere.” - Blaise Pascal.Can a Circle have an infinite diameter?
Defining or identifying something as a circle requires that thing to be of finite dimensions.Can a Circle have an infinite diameter?
I am not sure that is coercive logic.If the circumference is infinite, there can be no curvature at all…
Pretty much what I thought.Defining or identifying something as a circle requires that thing to be of finite dimensions.
An infinite thing cannot exist in reality.
In an imaginary world, you can have an infinite sized anything you want.
Which we can then, incidentally, square, of course.… Again, the result is a straight line.
Curvature is the inverse of the radius. The smaller the radius the larger the curvature. The inverse of an infinite radius is zero curvature. A zero radius would give infinite curvature.I am not sure that is coercive logic.
How would you prove that?
There is no such thing as an infinite circumference. It cannot satisfy the equation of a circle.Does a circle of infinite circumference have a diameter?
I would think so…
And would the diameter be finite?
I would think not.
Which means the diameter must then be infinite.
Which contradicts your conclusion.
Where is the flaw?
By that reasoning the slope of the horizontal component of an infinitely long 1/x curve would be 0. But it never does, thats the very definitional logic of an asymptote. It never turns into a perfectly straight line though it tends to.Curvature is the inverse of the radius. The smaller the radius the larger the curvature. The inverse of an infinite radius is zero curvature. A zero radius would give infinite curvature.
rossum
A circle by definition is finite. As soon as you have an infinite diameter you lose that which makes it a circle in the first place. The center of a circle always has to be a finite distance away from its circumference…Yes, if it has an infinite radius and diameter.
Which results in the same answer: no.
Because by its very definition, a circle is a CLOSED area, the graph of which defined as a set of points (x,y) on a cartesian plane, centered around coordinates (h,k) at a distance r that satisfy the equation
(x - h)^2 + (y - k)^2 = r^2
If r were of an infinite value, then no values x and y will ever satisfy the equation, so no circle graphing such an equation could ever exist.