Can a godparent marry his/her godchild?

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It is canon 811 in the Eastern Code:

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I do not know if the impediment can be dispensed, but I suspect it can. And, also you don’t specify if you were her baptismal sponsor or her confirmation sponsor, which may make a difference.

I am no expert on the Eastern Code. So, you should talk to someone in the Byzantine Rite who is.
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Thank you! I was her baptismal sponsor. Guess I need to do a bit more studying…
 
As a man, yes. My point isn’t necessarily male advice per se, it’s advice about from and about the opposite sex. If you married your female godparent, you’ve lost that source of advice for an outside perspective.
 
My husband (then boyfriend) was my sponsor when I converted, and we were married two years later. We are Latin Rite, and that was common practice at that particular parish so we never thought anything of it. It’s discouraged at our present parish, for a variety of reasons, and I guess there’s a very practical one to add to the list!

It’s also rare (in my experience) that adult converts have more than one sponsor. One of my sons also has only one godparent.
 
Thank you, Father. I learned something new, and I better understand why it was quoted as it was.
 
Paragon468 said:
CCEO - Table of Contents - IntraText CT

It is canon 811 in the Eastern Code:

CCEO: text - IntraText CT

I do not know if the impediment can be dispensed, but I suspect it can. And, also you don’t specify if you were her baptismal sponsor or her confirmation sponsor, which may make a difference.
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In the Eastern Code, only a baptismal sponsorship brings about affinity. Of course, in the East, it’s presupposed that Baptism and Chrismation are done together. Still, (even in the case of an adult Chrismation) since the code (811) only says that affinity arises from being a baptismal sponsor, there’s no impediment for Chrismation sponsor. And yes, I do have concrete experience dealing with this canon.
I am no expert on the Eastern Code. So, you should talk to someone in the Byzantine Rite who is.
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Thank you! I was her baptismal sponsor. Guess I need to do a bit more studying…
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If you marry first (both as Latin Rite Catholics) it’s a non-issue.

If you want to get married in the Byzantine form (which would require at least one of you to formally transfer first)

Canon 811 can be dispensed based on this

Canon 795
  1. The local hierarch can dispense the Christian faithful subject to him wherever they are as well as other Christian faithful enrolled in another Church sui iuris actually present within the territorial boundaries of his eparchy from impediments of ecclesiastical law except those which follow: (1) holy orders; (2) public perpetual vows of chastity in a religious institute, unless it is a case of congregations of eparchial right; (3) conjugicide.
  2. Dispensation from these impediments is reserved to the Apostolic See; however, the patriarch can dispense from the impediment of conjugicide as well as of the one of public perpetual vow of chastity made in congregations of any juridical condition. 3. A dispensation is never given from the impediment of consanguinity in the direct line or in the second degree of the collateral line.
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Thank you Father, that was a very helpful explanation.

So the Eastern Code actually says such circumstances invalidate marriage. Would it be more proper to say that it is illicit, not invalid?
 
Paragon468 said:
Thank you Father, that was a very helpful explanation.

So the Eastern Code actually says such circumstances invalidate marriage. Would it be more proper to say that it is illicit, not invalid?
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It makes it invalid. The canon says that quite clearly.

Canon 811
  1. From baptism there arises a spiritual relationship between a sponsor and the baptized person and the parents of the same that invalidates marriage.
  2. If a baptism is repeated under condition, a spiritual relationship does not arise, unless the same sponsor was employed for the second ceremony.
I want to caution you, just because canon 811 may be dispensed, there’s no guarantee that the Eparch will dispense.

And remember all I can do here (and 1ke as well) is to try to explain what the law says. In no way should our explanations here be taken as a substitute for discussing this with the Byzantine priest or someone at the Eparchy. Please don’t think we’re trying to do anything more than merely explain what the law says.
 
It makes it invalid. The canon says that quite clearly.

Canon 811

From baptism there arises a spiritual relationship between a sponsor and the baptized person and the parents of the same that invalidates marriage.
If a baptism is repeated under condition, a spiritual relationship does not arise, unless the same sponsor was employed for the second ceremony.
I want to caution you, just because canon 811 may be dispensed, there’s no guarantee that the Eparch will dispense.

And remember all I can do here (and 1ke as well) is to try to explain what the law says. In no way should our explanations here be taken as a substitute for discussing this with the Byzantine priest or someone at the Eparchy. Please don’t think we’re trying to do anything more than merely explain what the law says.
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I fully understand that this is just an explanation. I appreciate you taking the time to clarify things a bit. As of right now we both still belong to the Latin Rite. So I guess it’s good that I became aware of this issue now rather than later.
 
1ke said:
A sponsor and a godparent are the same thing. Sponsor is the canonical term. “Godparent” is merely a colloquial term.
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When a Jewish friend of ours converted to the Catholic faith a few years ago, he naturally had to be baptized and my wife and I had the privilege of being invited to act as his godparents.

However, I was baptized in infancy in the Church of England and consequently didn’t need to be rebaptized when I became a Catholic. The only ceremony I went through was my first communion. There were three of us “adults” having our first communion together: two teenage boys, who were brothers, and a stout middle-aged graybeard.

Yes, my wife was my sponsor, but No, she was not my godmother. Not even colloquially. The only godmother I have ever had was the relative, my father’s cousin, who was my godmother when I was baptized in the Church of England all those years ago.
 
When I was going through RCIA, we were explicitly told that our sponsor could not be our spouse!
 
Fauken said:
When I was going through RCIA, we were explicitly told that our sponsor could not be our spouse!
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That is a position many priests take. This is to ensure no undue pressure on the inquirer. It is not actually a canonical impediment.
 
adgloriam said:
Formerly it was forbidden, they were considered to have spiritual kinship.
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Respectfully opinion only. Why if they both have the same spirtual kinship, they were forbidden to marry? Are we not all called, to join together as>> One in Unity >>in the same Faith, Belief are we not?
Jesus calls Himself does he not ? He is our Bridegroom and we are His Bride? Is that not Spiritual Kinship?
Peace 🙂
 
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Fauken said:
It can be hard to do that when that person is your husband/wife. I
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Fauken said:
It can be hard to do that when that person is your husband/wife.
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Respectfully>opinion>>Why would it be hard, being both of the same Faith and Belief and is that not why we also have Priest to go to for Spiritual advice?
Fauken said:
It would be hard to do that if I was married to him.
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Respectfiully>>It would be harder for a married couple,if one was married to atheist, the other spouse was a believer in the church, would it not?
Peace 🙂
 
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