O
OurLadyofSorrows
Guest
As per the title, Unbaptised and unbeliever.
Last edited:
You are using an out of date browser. It may not display this or other websites correctly.
You should upgrade or use an alternative browser.
You should upgrade or use an alternative browser.
Can a marriage be convalidated if one party is not baptised and remains not baptised
- Status
- Not open for further replies.
V
Vico
Guest
Yes, and that is called a natural marriage. It requires a dispensation.As per the title, Unbaptised and unbeliever.
http://catholicweddinghelp.com/questions/unbaptized.htm
T
Titivillus
Guest
Or if both parties become baptized at a later time.
P
Pattylt
Guest
Question on this statement? If the non baptized party later was baptized in the Church, would the marriage suddenly become a sacramental marriage or would a ceremony or blessing be required? Would it become sacramental if the unbaptized was baptized in the Lutheran Church? Thanksr if both parties become baptized at a later time.
O
OurLadyofSorrows
Guest
Sorry I should have said convalidated. Can a Priest Convalidate a marriage between a Catholic and a non baptised/ unbaptised person.
@Vico @(name removed by moderator) @Titivillus @Pattylt
Would any such convalidation be a binding thing in the Catholic Church.
@Vico @(name removed by moderator) @Titivillus @Pattylt
Would any such convalidation be a binding thing in the Catholic Church.
Last edited:
T
Titivillus
Guest
I Am Not A Canon Lawyer but my understanding is: Yes, if both parties to a valid, natural marriage become baptized, their existent marriage becomes sacramental. This is the case if they are baptized in the Catholic Church or in any other Christian ecclesial community with a valid baptism.Question on this statement? If the non baptized party later was baptized in the Church, would the marriage suddenly become a sacramental marriage or would a ceremony or blessing be required? Would it become sacramental if the unbaptized was baptized in the Lutheran Church? Thanks
Can. 1055
§2. For this reason, a valid matrimonial contract cannot exist between the baptized without it being by that fact a sacrament.
O
OurLadyofSorrows
Guest
What is the impediment?
T
Titivillus
Guest
Surely. But neither am I expert in that area.
However I do find the situation laid out most explicitly in Canon Law, as opposed to the less explicit teaching in the Catechism (which then refers to the CIC)
1601 “The matrimonial covenant, by which a man and a woman establish between themselves a partnership of the whole of life, is by its nature ordered toward the good of the spouses and the procreation and education of offspring; this covenant between baptized persons has been raised by Christ the Lord to the dignity of a sacrament.”
However I do find the situation laid out most explicitly in Canon Law, as opposed to the less explicit teaching in the Catechism (which then refers to the CIC)
1601 “The matrimonial covenant, by which a man and a woman establish between themselves a partnership of the whole of life, is by its nature ordered toward the good of the spouses and the procreation and education of offspring; this covenant between baptized persons has been raised by Christ the Lord to the dignity of a sacrament.”
O
OurLadyofSorrows
Guest
What does this mean? the unbaptised needs to be baptised for convalidation to occur?
- Status
- Not open for further replies.