E
EsclavoDeCristo
Guest
I was wondering about the question stated in the subject line (and have submitted it to the “ask an apologist” forum).
It is required that the priest consume the Host, correct? And wouldn’t it be sacrelidge if he did this if he was in a state of mortal sin? What do you say?
It is required that the priest consume the Host, correct? And wouldn’t it be sacrelidge if he did this if he was in a state of mortal sin? What do you say?