M
Mark_Erickson
Guest
Our new pastor this year declined to include the Washing of the Feet during Holy Thursday liturgy (Mass of the Lord’s Supper) this year. His rationale was that, rather than washing only men’s feet (which he believes to be correct), and risk upsetting much of the congregation, he would wash no-one’s feet.
The rationale behind washing men only is that the Rubric in the new Liturgy still uses the latin term VIRI (male) rather than HOMO (unisexual) in describing the washing of the feet.
Is this (interpretation of the rubric) correct? If so, why do we see Bishops doing otherwise?
The rationale behind washing men only is that the Rubric in the new Liturgy still uses the latin term VIRI (male) rather than HOMO (unisexual) in describing the washing of the feet.
Is this (interpretation of the rubric) correct? If so, why do we see Bishops doing otherwise?