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Pope_Noah_I
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It seems that there are certain sections of the Scriptures that record God making men evil or, “hardening hearts”. Doesn’t this kind of blow the whole, “God is not the author of evil” argument out of the water?
That was very well said. I subscribed to this thread because I was very curious of the answer as well. Thank you for that explanationCase in point, Pharaoh. God hardens Pharaoh’s heart. So what does that mean?
If someone chooses to reject God and do evil, go is not the cause of that; however, God can use someones disposition against Him for good. God allows Pharaoh to go on his course of action and uses that stubbornness for His own good. The author of Genesis is probably skipping over the detailed explanation and stated that God hardened Pharaoh’s heart with the knowledge that the readers, pre-Messianic Jews, are going to have the context to understand the statement.
In short, God respects the freewill he gave us. Rejecting God does not prevent Him from using our own stubbornness to get the job done.
Exactly. I had listened to the Our Father’s Plan serious by Dr. Scott Hahn and regarding this passage in Romans, he said this -Hi,
Therefore God gave them up in the lusts of their hearts to impurity, to the dishonoring of their bodies among themselves… [skipping to verse 26]
In the Jewish creation story in Bereishit (Genesis), that brilliant polemic against the Enuma Elish, every time that God completes something to perfection He declares that it is good. No such declaration is made after the creation of Man. However, that does not mean that Man is evil, only that Man is not perfect and complete. On the contrary, God does not create things that are evil and not inherently good. Man is born pure without sin and with a great capacity for good.It seems that there are certain sections of the Scriptures that record God making men evil or, “hardening hearts”. Doesn’t this kind of blow the whole, “God is not the author of evil” argument out of the water?
Since evil is the absence of God and the absence of good, then I don’t see how God could make somebody absent from Himself. God makes all things out of love and makes all things good. Anyone who has a hardening of the heart, it is a result of the choices they make in accordance with the free will God has given them.It seems that there are certain sections of the Scriptures that record God making men evil or, “hardening hearts”. Doesn’t this kind of blow the whole, “God is not the author of evil” argument out of the water?
Actually there are a couple of goodness declarations… firstly that it is not good (lo tov) 2:18 for man to be alone and secondly after man and woman had been made in God’s image and all living things given to them God comments that it was VERY GOOD (tov meod) 1:31…In the Jewish creation story in Bereishit (Genesis), that brilliant polemic against the Enuma Elish, every time that God completes something to perfection He declares that it is good. No such declaration is made after the creation of Man. However, that does not mean that Man is evil, only that Man is not perfect and complete. On the contrary, God does not create things that are evil and not inherently good. Man is born pure without sin and with a great capacity for good.
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That is very observant of you, but in fact man is called good, because immediately after He made Man, the Bible says God called everything He had made “very good.” (Gen. 1:31)In the Jewish creation story in Bereishit (Genesis), that brilliant polemic against the Enuma Elish, every time that God completes something to perfection He declares that it is good. No such declaration is made after the creation of Man. However, that does not mean that Man is evil, only that Man is not perfect and complete.
Man is not born pure or David would not say “I was brought forth in iniquity, and in sin did my mother conceive me.” Psalm 51:5. But he does have a great capacity for good, if he responds to the helps of God’s grace.On the contrary, God does not create things that are evil and not inherently good. Man is born pure without sin and with a great capacity for good.
You will find Satan quite real if you read the Old Testament rightly. Job 1:6-12 and Job 2:1-7 both present Satan as an angel who denies God’s words and afflicts God’s people, by God’s permissive will, while God brings from these evils a greater good. In Zechariah 3:1-3, Satan is rebuked for arguing with God unjustly to try to keep a righteous man out of heaven.If so, what is the source of evil? In Christianity the source is the Devil. However, such an entity can not exist in the pure monotheistic concept of Judaism.
First, Satan is not depicted in the Old Testament as a mere messenger carrying out God’s will. He speaks and acts in violation of God’s will; his actions are not favored by God, and so they aren’t produced by God. Rather, they are produced by Satan himself, and that is proof that he has free will.There can be no independent and free willed entities in existence between Man and God, only Man and only the One God. Satan in Judaism, is not a free willed entity but a messenger of God carrying out God’s will. Similarly, Angels have no free will in Judaism.
No disagreement here. But man did not start out with evil inclinations. He was given free will and the knowledge of God’s will, and he had to prioritize these things rightly; he wrongly decided to put his own self-advancement ahead of doing the will of God, and that’s when he fell.what is the source of evil? Man has two inclinations, a good inclination and an evil inclination and the free will to choose between them. The evil inclination is one of self indulgence, the good inclination is one of altruism. It is the evil inclination which can lead to evil acts.
First, God did not create the evil inclination in man. Man did, because he was given power to freely decide his own priorities, and he put a relative “less-good” (his own self-advancement or “becoming God”) ahead of the highest possible good (doing God’s will). Second, getting married is not an evil inclination, and it does not ever have to involve them. It can be a supremely humble and self-emptying act, and those who do it rightly are to be praised. The same goes for raising a family and getting a job. Obtaining finances does not have to be selfish; it depends on what you are obtaining the finances for: selfish purposes or noble purposes.However, it is important to note that in giving man free will and also the evil inclination, God has not created something inherently evil. Without the evil inclination, Man would not get married, raise families or get a job and work for advancement.
Also for Christians, and the rest of the Bible is part of that guide too, along with the teachings of the Magisterium.Man has to find the balance between the good and evil inclinations. For the Jew, the guidebook for finding this balance is Torah.
Wrong. A man who acts out of a hardened heart is acting out of his own responsibility and poor judgment. For God to harden someone’s heart is to withdraw His graces which would have aligned man’s heart with His own; but He withdraws those graces in response to man’s hardening of his own heart, and that means it is a reaction to a man’s own free choice, and leaves that free choice intact, just without the help of grace to overcome our evil inclinations, because by our own freedom we rejected that help. So you see that hardness of heart presupposes a man’s free choice, and is not at all opposed to it; to harden one’s heart is merely an unfortunate use of free will – and to become hardened is an unfortunate consequence of freedom abused.If God has hardened Pharaoh’s heart then He has denied Pharaoh his free will.
He couldn’t be. That is a proof that to be hardened does not remove a man’s free will.Without free will, how can Pharaoh be responsible for his sins against the Jewish nation?
Read it; God explains why He hardened Pharoah’s heart, and it had nothing to do with destroying Pharaoh’s freedom. Cont’d next.Without free will, what are the purpose of the plagues? If they are to change Pharaoh’s attitudes and make him release the nation of Israel from slavery, then why harden his heart to prevent this from happening?
The plagues were both a punishment of the Egyptians and a source of freedom for the Jews.If God has hardened Pharaoh’s heart, then the plagues become not a source for bringing about the release of the Jews from slavery but an unavoidable preordained punishment of the Egyptian people.
If we study the Jewish sages on this subject, I believe we can see three different approaches. I personally define these three approaches as the weak argument, the strong argument and the interesting argument.
I don’t agree that that is a weak argument, but perhaps it is incomplete; Pharoah was the first one to harden his heart (Exodus 8:15), by rejecting the graces God gives to help a man do His will; in response, God hardened Pharoah’s heart (Exodus 9:12), meaning He withdrew the graces that would have saved the man, if he had merely chosen to accept God’s grace. Thus his hardening was totally his own responsibility; God’s action in hardening was a reaction to his own choice to harden himself.The weak argument: According to this approach when we speak of God hardening Pharaoh’s heart it in no way implies that God has denied Pharaoh his free will. On the contrary, this passage emphasizes Pharaoh’s free will. When we speak of God hardening Pharaoh’s heart we are merely saying that God was the source of the plagues as He is the source of all things. Pharaoh hardened his heart to God’s plagues and refused to let the children of Israel go. So when we speak of God hardening Pharaoh’s heart, what we are really saying is that Pharaoh hardened his heart to the plagues brought by God.
That also seems like a reasonable interpretation, and not at all in conflict with the one I gave above.The strong argument: God indeed hardened Pharaoh’s heart, but this did not deny Pharaoh his free will, but allowed Pharaoh to have free will. Had God not done this, then Pharaoh would not have been acting from free will but merely under the coercion of the plagues. By God hardening Pharaoh’s heart, He gave Pharaoh the ability and strength to freely exercise his free will in deciding how to react to the plagues.
Good point. Well-spoken, too, and one we can draw from against the Calvinists, who say repentance isn’t free or possible for the non-elect.As an aside, it should also be noted that the plagues cannot be seen as some sort of arbitrary act against Pharaoh in which the Egyptian people suffered. The plagues allowed for the punishment and contrition of the Egyptian people which would allow repentance and forgiveness for the cruel and sinful acts of the Egyptians against the nation of Israel while in Egypt.
First, Christians know that men who consistently reject God’s will may not be visited with the grace of repenting at the end of their life; that is why we tell people to repent now, and not wait for their deathbed, because, though a death-bed conversion is possible, it is very unlikely, since a man who has sinned all his life does not have the predisposition to accept God’s grace at his death. Rather, after rejecting God throughout his life, what makes him think his heart will have the preparation necessary to accept Him at his death? Only a singular grace could accomplish that, and we cannot presume upon God’s mercy. So there is a problem with your understanding of Christian doctrine on this point.The interesting argument: According to this argument, there comes a time when God has given a person so many chances to repent and the person has rejected so many of these chances, that God is no longer willing to forgive (take for example Sodom and Gomorrah - this is a concept rejected by Christianity which believes every soul, no matter what, can gain forgiveness up until the moment of death - so a Catholic could argue that there is a possibility that Hitler is in the world to come - a concept repugnant to both Jews and Judaism).
While a discussion explaining why God did not say it was “good” at the end of the second day (which leads to our understanding why God twice said it was good on the third and when and why He says it) as well as the meaning of the words “very good” at the end of creation, is an interesting topic, it is outside the scope of this thread. If you start a thread on the subject, I would be happy to elaborate these points from a Jewish perspective.That is very observant of you, but in fact man is called good, because immediately after He made Man, the Bible says God called everything He had made “very good.” (Gen. 1:31) Man is not born pure or David would not say “I was brought forth in iniquity, and in sin did my mother conceive me.” Psalm 51:5. But he does have a great capacity for good, if he responds to the helps of God’s grace. You will find Satan quite real if you read the Old Testament rightly. Job 1:6-12 and Job 2:1-7 both present Satan as an angel who denies God’s words and afflicts God’s people, by God’s permissive will, while God brings from these evils a greater good. In Zechariah 3:1-3, Satan is rebuked for arguing with God unjustly to try to keep a righteous man out of heaven. First, Satan is not depicted in the Old Testament as a mere messenger carrying out God’s will. He speaks and acts in violation of God’s will; his actions are not favored by God, and so they aren’t produced by God. Rather, they are produced by Satan himself, and that is proof that he has free will.
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Fine and good. I won’t press you on it, though it would be an interesting discussion.While a discussion explaining why God did not say it was “good” at the end of the second day (which leads to our understanding why God twice said it was good on the third and when and why He says it) as well as the meaning of the words “very good” at the end of creation, is an interesting topic, it is outside the scope of this thread.
(As is Christianity)Judaism is a pure monotheistic religion
The article asserts that Satan has no free will (nor does any other angel) and is assigned a mission by God of tempting people in this life, in the hopes that they will not succumb to his devices, so that we can improve ourselves by resisting evil impulses.and it is devoid of pagan mythological influences. This link: beingjewish.com/basics/satan.html may help the Christian reader understand the concept of Satan in Judaism (as opposed to the Christian concept of the devil) and subsequently lead to understanding the Jewish take of the allegorical book of Iyov (Job)
First, I would like a link to an essay or something comparing the differences and defending the position that it was the Christians who altered it, rather than the Jews. For I know that the opposite argument has been leveled against the Jews: it was not us Christians who removed parts of the Hebrew Bible; rather it was the Jews who removed the parts that proved Christianity true, and re-translated other parts that were too holy to get rid of. Perhaps the reason the Talmud passages are altered is because the Jews altered the original to remove Christian doctrine, rather than the other way around.You mention of Psalms 51:5 (sic) to support the Christian contention that “we are born in sin”. The Rabbis translated the Torah in Greek (called the “Septuagint”), but they did not translate the other two parts of the Jewish scriptures. In order to prevent a later corruption of their translation they placed 15 key passages of their Torah translation into the Talmud (see Tractate Megilla 9a-9b) so we could always be able to compare these passages to the original translation. In the current Christian version of the Septuagint, Christian translators have altered and falsified 13 of the 15 passages.
Very often, when someone confronts me that a translation I’ve quoted is inaccurate and biased, they produce one that is not very different at all – so it is in this case. I quoted, “I was brought forth in iniquity, and in sin did my mother conceive me.” You responded, “Behold, in iniquity was I fashioned, and in sin did my mother conceive me.” Where is your vast difference? It is not in the translation, I say, but in your interpretation, that we disagree. And even there we are not in complete conflict: I agree that we are called “conceived in sin” because we are born with a proclivity to sin. But I say it is also because we lack the holiness we are meant for as the Image of God. And I think I can prove it from the very principles you’ve admitted: for we would not be born with that proclivity to sin, if we were holy! An uncorrupted Man would not tend toward sin; but we tend toward sin from the day we are born; therefore we are born with corruption already in us. And that is the doctrine of original sin.Psalms 51 in the Christian version is missing the first two verses. The relevant verse that you quoted is therefore verse 7 which states “חן-בעוון חוללתי ובחטא יחמתני אמי”
or in English “Behold, in iniquity was I fashioned, and in sin did my mother conceive me” (in other words: the impulses which can cause man to sin are present in him from his very inception. It is man’s duty to control and channel them properly see Ibn Ezra).