Can Jesus Trip Accidentally?

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Open Theist believe God is immutable in his nature. Nice try, though.
Not in the way it is understood by Christians. You can make words mean anything you want them to mean, but “immutable” has always been understood in such a way as to exclude the possibility of change in God. God not knowing something and then later knowing something is admitting of change in God, which is heresy and blasphemy.
 
It’s kinda funny to see that number go up. I’m betting some RCC says 50,000 by the end of the year.

You need to take a walk down my neighborhood.

Psalms are poetry, and should be read as poetry.

Really? Even Psalm 22 and Psalm 77? Odd, because they describe things done or experienced by Christ.

Consider for a moment Genesis 22:12. GOD says, “Now I know…” in response to Abraham raising the knife to kill Isaac. This is a temporal reference to when God comes to know something.

So you are one of those who don’t understand the meaning of this event? I know a few atheists who think like you and for that reason are no longer believers. Catholics understand what this trial actually was.

And Consider Jeremiah 3:6-7. God thinks Israel will do something, and she doesn’t.

This that you portray is a strange God indeed. Not like the living God that cannot be deceived (Galatians 6:7)

Both clearly suggest something about God based upon His own words.

They suggest something about the reader of God’s words.

Which only shows that Aquinas isn’t infallible.

True, but he still knew better than me, than you, and that whoever came up with the bizarre idea of open theism.
 
It’s kinda funny to see that number go up. I’m betting some RCC says 50,000 by the end of the year.

You need to take a walk down my neighborhood.
Are they saying 50,000 already?
Psalms are poetry, and should be read as poetry.
Really? Even Psalm 22 and Psalm 77? Odd, because they describe things done or experienced by Christ.
In poetry. Is Jesus literally a worm?
Consider for a moment Genesis 22:12. GOD says, “Now I know…” in response to Abraham raising the knife to kill Isaac. This is a temporal reference to when God comes to know something.
So you are one of those who don’t understand the meaning of this event? I know a few atheists who think like you and for that reason are no longer believers. Catholics understand what this trial actually was.
It was a trial so God would know how this matter would be settled in Abraham’s heart. That’s what the text tells us.

How do you interpret “now I know”?
And Consider Jeremiah 3:6-7. God thinks Israel will do something, and she doesn’t.
This that you portray is a strange God indeed. Not like the living God that cannot be deceived (Galatians 6:7)]
There’s nothing about deception in Jer 3:6-7
Both clearly suggest something about God based upon His own words.
They suggest something about the reader of God’s words.
That I take the bible seriously.
Which only shows that Aquinas isn’t infallible.
True, but he still knew better than me, than you, and that whoever came up with the bizarre idea of open theism.
So you claim. Still, his view of transubstantiation is based in a rejected substance theory. Clearly he’s wrong on some things.
 
Not in the way it is understood by Christians. You can make words mean anything you want them to mean, but “immutable” has always been understood in such a way as to exclude the possibility of change in God. God not knowing something and then later knowing something is admitting of change in God, which is heresy and blasphemy.
So, you reject the incarnation? Who’s the heretic now?
 
So, you reject the incarnation? Who’s the heretic now?
The Incarnation effected no change in the divine essence. The Divine Persons learning information that they did not previously know would effect such a change.
 
The Incarnation effected no change in the divine essence. The Divine Persons learning information that they did not previously know would effect such a change.
So, God can add a human nature to Himself, and that’s not a change, but adding knowledge to Himself is change.

Special pleading?
 
So, God can add a human nature to Himself, and that’s not a change, but adding knowledge to Himself is change.

Special pleading?
I guess “Protestant” really can mean anything you want it to mean if you can reject the Council of Nicaea and still call yourself one.
 
So, God can add a human nature to Himself, and that’s not a change, but adding knowledge to Himself is change.

Special pleading?
God did not ‘add’ a human nature to Himself, Jesus is Co-Eternal with God the Father and God the Holy Spirit:
NewAdvent:
Thus, in the words of the Athanasian Creed: “the Father is God, the Son is God, and the Holy Spirit is God, and yet there are not three Gods but one God.” In this Trinity of Persons the Son is begotten of the Father by an eternal generation, and the Holy Spirit proceeds by an eternal procession from the Father and the Son. Yet, notwithstanding this difference as to origin, the Persons are co-eternal and co-equal: all alike are uncreated and omnipotent. This, the Church teaches, is the revelation regarding God’s nature which Jesus Christ, the Son of God, came upon earth to deliver to the world: and which she proposes to man as the foundation of her whole dogmatic system.
QED: no change.
 
I believe most scholars claim that Jesus veiled himself from his “omni” powers, including omniscience. So, it is perfectly valid to say that Jesus can trip accidentally.

(Then again, there is the theology of open theism which says that the future is logically unknowable, and thus God doesn’t know the exact course of the future.)
The future has to be logically knowable according to some principle, be it nature or divine - otherwise the fabric of reality would unweave itself.

I would like to believe Christ, in his submission to the flesh, submitted also to the limitation of the human brain. This would not exclude the knowledge of His own divinity, but would exclude (though again, as an act of submission) the sort of precognition about everyday occurrences. However, after the Resurrection, I think he would not trip, because of his exaltation within the flesh.
 
Are they saying 50,000 already?
No :o But there are truly many more than you can imagine. This is because the Scripture must be fulfilled: “he who does not gather with me, scatters” and “he that falls on this stone shall be broken to pieces: but on whomsoever it shall fall, it will scatter him as dust.”
In poetry. Is Jesus literally a worm?
Had you seen Him in the dust, all covered in wounds and blood from head to toes, crawling and trying to lift up the cross, exhausted, you would understand why the Holy Spirit says what he says. It is not just poetry, it reflects a most sorrowful reality. The apostles do say that Christ was made a curse and sin. Is Christ literally a curse and sin? No, but He became such for our sake, in this temporal reality, though in His eternal divinity His glory was not affected in one bit.
It was a trial so God would know how this matter would be settled in Abraham’s heart. That’s what the text tells us.
The text tells us more than that. God is not ignorant, but all-knowing. God already knew Abraham’s heart. God wanted a man and his only son to become types for Him and His Only Son. God knew that Abraham and Isaac were those men, because He knew their hearts. Isaac knew what Abraham was going to do, and he accepted to carry the wood of his own sacrifice and lay on it, yet he did not open his mouth, like a lamb taken to the slaughterhouse. Abraham knew that God would not take away his only son or abandon him in the realm of the dead, for he told his servants: “we will go offer a sacrifice and we will come back”. When Isaac asked what was going to be sacrificed, Abraham replied: “God will provide the Lamb for the offering”. God in fact provided for the sacrifice, but He provided only a little goat. About two thousand years later a prophet coming from the desert saw the Son of Man walking and, filled with the Spirit, said: “Behold, the Lamb of God!” God graciously knows, always and everything.
How do you interpret “now I know”?
A manner of speech to define that it was the fullness of time for that to be experienced. God is outside of time, but it was in that moment that, in time, the certainty of the event had been fulfilled. Just as with Scripture: when Christ says, the words that you have heard are fulfilled in your ears. In God’s eyes, it was clear that Christ would come and fulfill His work of redemption. But only in that moment the Scripture was fulfilled.
There’s nothing about deception in Jer 3:6-7
Ok, but then how could God think that Israel would do something and Israel manage to do something else? Israel must have deceived God, tricking Him to think that he would return, when he actually didn’t. That is not possible in God’s eyes, for He cannot be deceived. If Israel was not going to return, God would have foreknown this even before Israel was formed in the womb.
That I take the bible seriously.
Indeed you do, and that is very good. But the Bible is not God. It is not even the Word of God. It is just the word of God with lowercase w. There is more to it. And to pick passages and focus on them to sustain a doctrine that contradicts tradition is a practice called in Greek haireomai, which has never led to good results. For hundreds of years the Early Church did not even have a Bible until the Church compiled its Canon. The orthodox doctrine was transmitted by tradition, in word or writing, through the indisputable authority of the episkopoi and of the presbyteros, who were successors of the blessed apostles of Christ. The truth was sought in the apostolic churches established by these, over which they were shepherds. It is to them that others went to clarify matters on the Bible. Iraeneus points this out when he writes: “Suppose there arise a dispute relative to some important question among us, should we not have recourse to the most ancient churches with which the apostles held constant conversation, and learn from them what is certain and clear in regard to the present question?”
So you claim. Still, his view of transubstantiation is based in a rejected substance theory. Clearly he’s wrong on some things.
Of course he is wrong on some things. No doubt about it. He sure wasn’t omniscent, and I do not know how could he or anyone be expected to know scientific facts 800 years before their discovery. But I do not have the necessary knowledge, nor the gifts of the Spirit, nor the boldness to claim that I know better than Thomas Aquinas, the Doctor of the Church that influenced theology forever and the philosopher who contributed to shape Western philosophy as a whole. And even if humbly I were to realize that he is not correct on some matter, I would go back to what others said on this - others with authority, such as the Church Fathers - and having found that their basic doctrine is coherent and uncontradicted, I will patiently wait until a better term, say, than substance and transubstantiation, is found to describe the Divine Mysteries, and I will be content with the reply of John Damascene: “if you enquire how this happens, it is enough for you to learn that it was through the Holy Spirit”. This we know as a fact. We also know that there remain two realities after the consecration: an earthly and a divine. Whether realities, substance and accident, or who knows what other terms are good, they still reflect with fallible human words a concept that is ineffable in itself but undeniable in the eyes of two thousand years of tradition beginning at the Last Supper and even before (for Scripture speaks of the Eucharist throughout its books).
 
So you claim. Still, his view of transubstantiation is based in a rejected substance theory. Clearly he’s wrong on some things.
Substance theory has its modern defenders, though you are correct that it has seen better days after Hume and Heidegger.

I also hope you realize, since you claim to be a Protestant, that substance theory is a concept necessary for belief in the Trinity - the Nicene creed, which most Protestants as well as Catholics and Orthodox hold to, clearly states in the original that Christ is *consubstantial *with the Father, i.e. of one substance.
 
Yes, Jesus CAN trip accidentally. Remember, he took on our human nature, and since for humans it is possible to trip accidentally, therefore, it is possible for Jesus.
Thank you for the response, my brother.

But again, wouldn’t that conflict with His Omniscient nature? I mean, of course, FROM His humanity, He doesn’t have omniscience, but FROM His divinity, He does. Therefore, by virtue of the Hypostatic Union of these two natures in Christ, IN His humanity, he still has his omniscience (Note, if I haven’t emphasized it enough, the distinctions between “FROM His humanity” and "IN His Humanity).

Though, I do understand what you meant by “Jesus CAN trip accidentally”, but then again, wouldn’t that possibility be ruled out by His divinity? And since He is God and, as St. Paul coined it, the “New Adam”, wouldn’t it be fitting that Jesus is the most perfect Man? And therefore, he should also have the most perfect human specimen (i.e.mind and body), which would mean that, save the trips due to the stresses of His Passion, it is impossible for Him to casually trip by accident.

Anyway, to clear things up, allow me to rephrase my question,

Assuming that Jesus CAN trip accidentally because of His human nature, by virtue of His divinity, can He, as God-man, trip accidentally?

Muze, my brother, I’m sorry, but I strongly believe you don’t know what the term Omniscience really means, especially when attributing it to God.

God is the highest conceivable being. He is ABSOLUTELY perfect in every possible sense. And if a Thing is ABSOLUTELY perfect, it means that It doesn’t have any more POTENTIAL to be or acquire something more and something else, for It is already 100% ACTUAL, or simply, It is already a Pure Act. And the implication of these is that, if we say that God is omniscient, it means that He is Omniscient in an absolutely perfect sense, and so that he knows all things, even the future events which has yet to come to pass. And by virtue of God’s utter simplicity, we can also say, like God not only being just but also being Justice Itself, that God is not only omniscient, He Is also Omniscience.

Your Open Theism directly contradicts this nature of God, not only according to our Christian Faith, but also according to Metaphysics.

What you have to remember, Muze, is that the concept of Past, Present and Future are only applicable within the realm of Time and Space – our universe. There’s no such things in Eternity, which is outside space-time.

Pax
 
I guess “Protestant” really can mean anything you want it to mean if you can reject the Council of Nicaea and still call yourself one.
I haven’t rejected anything, including Nicea. I’ve stated that God is immutable.
 
The future has to be logically knowable according to some principle, be it nature or divine - otherwise the fabric of reality would unweave itself.
it isn’t.

And reality is still here. There simply isn’t any logical reason to say that the future is definitely foreknowable.
 
I also hope you realize, since you claim to be a Protestant, that substance theory is a concept necessary for belief in the Trinity - the Nicene creed, which most Protestants as well as Catholics and Orthodox hold to, clearly states in the original that Christ is *consubstantial *with the Father, i.e. of one substance.
No, Aristotle’s substance theory does not come into the discussion of the trinity. That’s a different use of the term.
 
Assuming that Jesus CAN trip accidentally because of His human nature, by virtue of His divinity, can He, as God-man, trip accidentally?
This is the same question as the original question, with the same answer.
 
This is the same question as the original question, with the same answer.
Like I said, my brother, it’s just a rephrase, not a new question 🙂

What I might be trying to find in this thread, regardless of the statement, is a comprehensive and substantive answer.

I’m gonna put it this way,

Man is capable of making mistakes.
God is [not] capable of making mistakes.
Jesus is both God and Man.

So how do we reconcile the capability of Man and the incapability of God to make mistakes? What are the dynamics between these two natures of Christ? How would these play out as far as the given scenario is concerned?

Thank you, my brother and sisters in Christ!
 
Thank you for the response, my brother.

But again, wouldn’t that conflict with His Omniscient nature? I mean, of course, FROM His humanity, He doesn’t have omniscience, but FROM His divinity, He does. Therefore, by virtue of the Hypostatic Union of these two natures in Christ, IN His humanity, he still has his omniscience (Note, if I haven’t emphasized it enough, the distinctions between “FROM His humanity” and "IN His Humanity).

Though, I do understand what you meant by “Jesus CAN trip accidentally”, but then again, wouldn’t that possibility be ruled out by His divinity? And since He is God and, as St. Paul coined it, the “New Adam”, wouldn’t it be fitting that Jesus is the most perfect Man? And therefore, he should also have the most perfect human specimen (i.e.mind and body), which would mean that, save the trips due to the stresses of His Passion, it is impossible for Him to casually trip by accident.
If the hypostatic union worked in the way you seem to think it does, Christ could not have been crucified at all, because he basically would have been Superman. Recall the woman who was healed by touching the hem of his garment from Mark:

24 He went off with him, and a large crowd followed him and pressed upon him. There was a woman afflicted with hemorrhages for twelve years. 26 She had suffered greatly at the hands of many doctors and had spent all that she had. Yet she was not helped but only grew worse. 27 She had heard about Jesus and came up behind him in the crowd and touched his cloak. 28 She said, “If I but touch his clothes, I shall be cured.” 29 Immediately her flow of blood dried up. She felt in her body that she was healed of her affliction. 30* Jesus, aware at once that power had gone out from him, turned around in the crowd and asked, “Who has touched my clothes?” 31 But his disciples said to him, “You see how the crowd is pressing upon you, and yet you ask, ‘Who touched me?’” 32 And he looked around to see who had done it. 33 The woman, realizing what had happened to her, approached in fear and trembling**. She fell down before Jesus and told him the whole truth. 34 He said to her, “Daughter, your faith has saved you. Go in peace and be cured of your affliction.”*

I think this makes it pretty clear that, in submission to the flesh, he cast off omniscience to a certain extent, willingly. If you deny this and say he was only acting to teach the disciples a lesson, I think you are in danger of embracing a form of Docetism. Though, this does not surprise me - many people on this forum place so much emphasis on the more Puritanical elements of Christianity that they don’t even realize how dangerously close they tread to various Gnostic heresies.

The most important message I can give you is thins: some elements of the Incarnation are a Mystery that cannot be fully explained using reason alone. I think the conscientiousness of Jesus is one of them. If is says in the Bible, Jesus tripped, assume he tripped. If it says, he asked who touched him, assume he meant it. Because, otherwise, I think that the way you are framing Jesus runs a very strong risk of denying his full humanity.
 
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