U
Uriel1
Guest
let’s see if anyone can come up with an explanation to elucidate on thisTo see Jesus is to have seen God face to face.
But that is different sense than what Moses or John meant.
let’s see if anyone can come up with an explanation to elucidate on thisTo see Jesus is to have seen God face to face.
But that is different sense than what Moses or John meant.
Gen.4Wesrock:![]()
let’s see if anyone can come up with an explanation to elucidate on thisTo see Jesus is to have seen God face to face.
But that is different sense than what Moses or John meant.
Uriel, there is really no trouble here at all: Jesus is the visible manifestation of the invisible God. Therefore, it is quite all right to say that seeing Jesus is seeing God, although His glory was veiled to an extent since He will only come back in full Glory at the end of times; the Apocalypse (Matthew 25:31). If you are struggling with comprehending what the heck this “manifestation of God” is about, then i suggest you look up the examples of the “Shekinah Glory” of God in the Old Testament context. It refers to the visible dwelling/presence of God, i.e.; God’s presence in the Tabernacle (Holy of Holies), His dwelling in the cloud over the Tabernacle, God speaking to Moses through the burning bush and from the pillar of cloud, God’s visible manifestation in the pillar of fire at night, and in the cloud while He lead Israelites in the desert, etc. God has never been seen by anyone but by God the Son alone.Wesrock:![]()
let’s see if anyone can come up with an explanation to elucidate on thisTo see Jesus is to have seen God face to face.
But that is different sense than what Moses or John meant.
Turk, Your explanation is excellent. I, myself, am not struggling but need to find a simple answer for catechesis I’m doing. I also wanted to see how long it took for a sound explanation to arise. Thank you so much for a well thought-out answerUriel1:![]()
Uriel, there is really no trouble here at all: Jesus is the visible manifestation of the invisible God. Therefore, it is quite all right to say that seeing Jesus is seeing God, although His glory was veiled to an extent since He will only come back in full Glory at the end of times; the Apocalypse (Matthew 25:31). If you are struggling with comprehending what the heck this “manifestation of God” is about, then i suggest you look up the examples of the “Shekinah Glory” of God in the Old Testament context. It refers to the visible dwelling/presence of God, i.e.; God’s presence in the Tabernacle (Holy of Holies), His dwelling in the cloud over the Tabernacle, God speaking to Moses through the burning bush and from the pillar of cloud, God’s visible manifestation in the pillar of fire at night, and in the cloud while He lead Israelites in the desert, etc. God has never been seen by anyone but by God the Son alone.Wesrock:![]()
let’s see if anyone can come up with an explanation to elucidate on thisTo see Jesus is to have seen God face to face.
But that is different sense than what Moses or John meant.
The answer to your previous question: Jesus Christ, the second person of the Holy Trinity (God-Head), has two natures (Human & Divine) in the one single, unique and Divine person of God the Son. Although His body was glorified at the Resurrection, He was still not in His full Glory until He returned to the Father.
Tell us please. Quote as much as you want to and contributeWhat is the exact quote, and include the passages either side, then consider the chapter it is in.
And then ask, how is God showing His love for mankind and preparing us for the Incarnation, in this chapter.