Can Objective Morality be proven?

  • Thread starter Thread starter lemonbeam
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Yes, The meaning of “proof” is to test.(i.e. to prove metal, a weld, alcohol content.) Not all proofs are conclusive, it isnt nessesary to overcome all objections.
All people have some expectation of how others should behave, some form of morality is universal and often different cultures and religions have practically the same beliefs.
 
May I invite you to visit the following website: alabamacatholicresources.com

Dr. Kreeft is an outstanding speaker and teacher. He teaches philosophy at Boston College. The three talks you want to listen to are probably Moral Theology, Critical Thinking Skills, and The Culture War.
 
It can be demonstrated that people consider some actions acceptable, and others unacceptable. It can also be demonstrated that the majority of people lack a coherent, logically consistent standard by which they judge whether actions are acceptable or not.

It can be demonstrated that murder is universally considered wrong by humans, because the definition of murder is “wrongful killing”. It can also be demonstrated that the majority of humans agree that there are situations in which killing is not murder. It can also be demonstrated that, even within individuals, there are contradictions in people think killing is murder.
 
If someone says no, then slap them in the face. When they raise a stink, ask them on what objective basis.

😃

– Mark L. Chance.
👍
Reminds me of the (I believe Hindu) teacher who had a student who was arguing that there was no such thing a an objective difference between right & wrong.
The teacher with his Ph.D. was getting no place. Then his wife stepped up, with the teakettle of boiling water, & held it over the student’s head, & asked, “Since there is no real difference between right & wrong, why don’t I:eek: pour this on your head, instead of into the teapot?”🤷
The guy caught on.** Fast**.
 
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