Can one exclude the OT and still be Christian?

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Voco, I think you may be missing the underlying message.

I study Scripture not to make me a better Christian. I study Scripture because I love God and I want to know as much about Him as possible. If that makes me a better Christian, “Woo Hoo!” :extrahappy: But that’s just icing on the cake.

Think about it this way. You’ve just found the love of your life. You are so happy with that person that you wish to spend the rest of your life with them. Do you wish to find out everything about that person, or just since they became an adult?

I (begrudingly) acknowledge that one doesn’t need to know the OT to be a good Christian. Heck, one doesn’t need to know the NT to be a good Christian, for that matter. But one shouldn’t settle for being just a good Christian. One should strive for perfection, as Jesus asked us.
 
Voco, I think you may be missing the underlying message.
Yes, I think I touched upon that in my last posting.
Jesus wants me for a sunbeam!
are in the words of a hymn.
I study Scripture not to make me a better Christian. I study Scripture because I love God and I want to know as much about Him as possible. If that makes me a better Christian, “Woo Hoo!” :extrahappy: But that’s just icing on the cake.
OK, so you want to go on to higher education, and as it were, study nuclear physics. If that is your calling, then I am not to argue. I was just pointing out, that to a labourer in the field, quoting from reference books might be a turn-off, or at best, confusing.
Think about it this way. You’ve just found the love of your life. You are so happy with that person that you wish to spend the rest of your life with them. Do you wish to find out everything about that person, or just since they became an adult?
No! that person might have something to keep quiet about, and it is up to me to have faith that, if it is my business to know, I will be told, when the time is right.
I (begrudingly) acknowledge that one doesn’t need to know the OT to be a good Christian. Heck, one doesn’t need to know the NT to be a good Christian, for that matter. But one shouldn’t settle for being just a good Christian. One should strive for perfection, as Jesus asked us.
I did not come to this board as a firmly committed Christian, but it seems that I have been assigned the task of examining the Gospel in the Victor Codex, otherwise known as the Codex Fuldensis Gospel, which has a two column bi-ingual copy in existance known as Codex Sangallensis(56).
This study has caused me to study the Four Gospels, and even to learn somewhat of Latin. So my basis is as you say, not the NT, but just the Gospels, and though I am studying them in depth, though without checking on the OT references, that seems to be my calling.
The task has been set before me as food fed to a child, only as and when I am ready for it.
Yes, it is a mystery, but one I have learned not to question.
 
.No! that person might have something to keep quiet about, and it is up to me to have faith that, if it is my business to know, I will be told, when the time is right.
Then let me re-phrase that, because God doesn’t want to hide anything about the past.

You’ve found the love of your life. They want to tell you everything about them. Do you wish to listen, or do you wish to tell them, “No thanks, I just want to know about the last 10 years of your life, not your childhood. Maybe others would like to know, but I don’t

God wants to tell you about the early years as well.
 
No Vern, your History here is wrong. The Pauline epistles can be dated to around AD 60, and Gospels, at least in the form of Story Tellers’ traditions existed as early as AD 170, tor Tatian witnessed these tales,as witnessed by Ephrem Syrus.
No, yours is – the existance of the individual gospels, epistles and Revelation is one thing. The recognition of those documents as the canonical Bible is another.

In the era before the canon was proclaimed, there was a virtual industry generating “gospels,” apoclypses, epistles, and so on. Not until the canon was proclaimed was there any standard by which the spurious material could be judged.
Yes there was LXX from the beginning, but this was reference material.
No, it was the Holy Bible and revered as such.
If the standard claim is true, what business did St Victor, Bishop of Capua, have in publishing a New Testament Vulgate?
Devotional and evangelical texts have been in circulation since ca AD 60. You might not want to call these texts NT scripture, but they certainly were what became accepted as that.
And there were many heritical texts circulating also.
 
Dear Vern,
Surly you are not claiming that prior to the NT canon, there were no Christians?
As to using terminology LXX in place of OT Bible, LXX is the version thereof which was universally in use in the areas of Jewry where Christianity took hold and it is the version quoted by Our Lord.
Canon is merely Latin for table or list. To say that the parts of the NT were not so prior to the fixing of the list is to play with words. These documents assembled were surely the Proto NT. Does that make those who followed them ‘proto Christians’? Of course it does not.
Just because the canon had not yet been fixed does not disqualify the pre-existance of the NT, even if that pre-existing NT had some minor differences with the fixed canon.
Let’s face it, until the existance of modern technology of papermaking and printing, the books of the bible were just that, separate books, and some books came in parts, because they would be too big otherwise, eg, Kings, Isaiah, Psalms. The canon was just a list of those books, or versions thereof, blessed as Holy Scripture.
 
Dear Vern,
Surly you are not claiming that prior to the NT canon, there were no Christians?
I was beginning to think that was your claim – you seem to be saying, no New Testament, no Christians.😃

However, my position is that Christianity was and is based on Tradition. For some 350 years, Tradition was handed down by word of mouth. Tradition venerated certain writings, but not others. And Tradition was used finally in establishing the canon of the New Testament.

But during all those 350 years, the Old Testament was revered and studied by Christians.
As to using terminology LXX in place of OT Bible, LXX is the version thereof which was universally in use in the areas of Jewry where Christianity took hold and it is the version quoted by Our Lord.
Yep – which shows Christ did not denegrate the Old Testament.
Canon is merely Latin for table or list.
Nope – it’s Greek for “cane.” In ancient times, when straight edges were hard to come by, craftsmen and builders used canes – and often marked them with ink to be used as measuring sticks. So “cane” – “canon” came to mean “standard by which things are measured.”
To say that the parts of the NT were not so prior to the fixing of the list is to play with words.
To say there was a standard list of inspired Christian writing prior to the fixing of the Canon is to play with words.
These documents assembled were surely the Proto NT.
Where can we find a copy of this “Proto NT?” Which ancient writer refers to it?
Does that make those who followed them ‘proto Christians’? Of course it does not.
Does that make those who relied on the spoken Tradition – including the Apostles “proto Christians” or “non-Christians?”
Just because the canon had not yet been fixed does not disqualify the pre-existance of the NT, even if that pre-existing NT had some minor differences with the fixed canon.
What “pre-existing NT?” Where can I find a copy of it?
Let’s face it, until the existance of modern technology of papermaking and printing, the books of the bible were just that, separate books, and some books came in parts, because they would be too big otherwise, eg, Kings, Isaiah, Psalms. The canon was just a list of those books, or versions thereof, blessed as Holy Scripture.
I think you just tripped over the truth – without the ability to bind large books, the NT was a collection of books – which meant it was critical to have a Canon. A copy of the New Testament in those days would be a bucket, tub or casket full of scrolls.

But there was no official Canon, so anything might be included. Books could be added to, or taken from the bucket, and no one could tell without inventorying the contents.
 
I was beginning to think that was your claim – you seem to be saying, no New Testament, no Christians.😃

However, my position i. . . . .establishing the canon of the New Testament.
We know from the witness of Tatian and Ephrem Syrus, that the Gospels were extant in AD 170.
We know from other Fathers that Most of the Epistles were also then extant.
Witnesses to Luke also witness Acts.
The apocalypse indeed was acknowledged later.
Thus with the exception of the Apocalypse, the NT was extant in AD 170, and in Latin shortly after AD 200.
If you read St Jerome’s preface to the Gospels:
tertullian.org/fathers/jerome_preface_gospels.htm
It is thus clear that St Jerome had before him, Latin texts which he considered ancient. These are thus then of the age of the Latin Gospels of Carthage, and as he himself says, he only lightly edited them where they differed in substance from his best Greek texts, in the Clementine Gospels, we have essentially, those ancient, ca AD 200 Latin Gospels.
As for general NT witness, here are the words of Tertullian:
en.wikipedia.org/wiki/New_Testament
The history of translation and usage of the term New Testament
Some believe the English term New Testament ultimately comes from the Hebrew language. New Testament is taken from the Latin Novum Testamentum first coined by Tertullian. Some believe this in turn is a translation of the earlier Koine Greek Καινή Διαθήκη (pronounced in postclassical Greek as Keni Dhiathiki). This Greek term is found in the original Greek language of the New Testament, though commonly translated as new covenant, and found even earlier in the Greek translation of the Old Testament that is called the Septuagint. At Jeremiah 31:31, the Septuagint translated this term into Greek from the original Hebrew ברית חדשה (brit chadashah). The Hebrew term is usually also translated into English as new covenant.
As a result, some claim the term was first used by Early Christians to refer to the new covenant that was the basis for their relationship with God. About two centuries later at the time of Tertullian and Lactantius, the phrase was being used to designate a particular collection of books that some believed embodied this new covenant.
Tertullian, in the 2nd century, was the first to use the terms novum testamentum/new testament and vetus testamentum/old testament. For example, in Against Marcion book 3 [1], chapter 14, he wrote:
Code:
This may be understood to be the Divine Word, who is doubly edged with the two testaments of the law and the gospel
So in Tertulians time, the scripture was considered to be:
The Law - Torah or Pentateuch, and
The Gospel(s).
The rest of the OT, and what was to become the rest of the NT, was considered other, but nontheless, useful.
But during all those 350 years, . . . .the Old Testament.
Nope – it’s Greek for “cane.” . . . .things are measured."
This is strange. I agree I cannot find this word in a Latin dictionary, but when translating from a Latin text in which the word appears, the translation is given as I said. This was in the context of the Eusebian ‘canon tables’ if you will excuse the tautology.
To say there was a standard list of inspired Christian writing prior to the fixing of the Canon is to play with words.
The Canon, or the canons, existed long before The Canon was fixed. These list were simply registers of texts which local churches considered to be special. As we see above, Tertulian considered the canon to be:
Genesis,
Exodus’
Leviticus,
Numbers,
Deuteronomy,
Matthew,
Mark,
Luke,
John.
Where can we find a copy of this “Proto NT?” Which ancient writer refers to it?
So the Proto NT comprised only the Gospel(s),
Thus you could be referring to the four individual Gospels to which St Jerome refers, or either version of the Diatessaron.
For the latter, the original version, now lost in original format, but witnessed in a degenerate Arabic, is witnessed in the original by Eprem Syrus. The later version, composed in Latin, from the Old Latin Gospels of AD 200, is still extant in the Codex Fuldensis, and available in English by my poor translation.
I think you just tripped over the truth – without the ability to bind large books, the NT was a collection of books – which meant it was critical to have a Canon. A copy of the New Testament in those days would be a bucket, tub or casket full of scrolls.
Yes, a list of contents!
But there was no official Canon, so anything might be included. Books could be added to, or taken from the bucket, and no one could tell without inventorying the contents.
See, we are both saying the same thing, but using different words, and perhaps having different emphasis.
 
Sorry I sounded harsh. But honestly, this idea that certain parts of the Bible can safely be skipped, or are only for academics and special people – that’s the kind of attitude that gets people into trouble. Both the OT and the NT are a unified whole. Both are the Word of God equally. Both are equally important to every believing Christian.

If God can go to the trouble of inspiring it, I can certainly go to the trouble of reading it and taking it seriously, as more than just a dead letter. 🙂

Now, it is certainly permitted to take your time getting through the whole Bible and not reading it in order, or to say, “I feel like studying the Gospels more at the moment!” It’s natural to have favorites among the books that touch your heart more than others. But if you limit yourself to studying only certain books, you are cutting yourself off from many good things. Different things will jump out of you at different times in your life, or even on different days; and they often come from bits of the Bible you scarcely remembered existed.

You don’t read the OT books primarily for reference, or to understand references in the NT. You read them to understand what humans are capable of, as well as the divine plan. And if you can read the historical books and not see a reference to yourself and your own life, I’d really be surprised.

The major thing is to read with an open mind, and an expectation that God didn’t stick this stuff into the Bible for the purpose of boring countless generations, or for providing info which would quickly become outdated. The early Christians read the OT with just such eyes of faith, and were rewarded with rich helps for their daily lives. (Even from Leviticus. Which really takes digging.)
 
We know from the witness of Tatian and Ephrem Syrus, that the Gospels were extant in AD 170.
Which is irrelevant to the argument. There was no gernerally accepted canon – and there were many candidates, should a canon be proclaimed.
We know from other Fathers that Most of the Epistles were also then extant.
Witnesses to Luke also witness Acts.
The apocalypse indeed was acknowledged later.
Thus with the exception of the Apocalypse, the NT was extant in AD 170, and in Latin shortly after AD 200.
If you read St Jerome’s preface to the Gospels:
tertullian.org/fathers/jerome_preface_gospels.htm
It is thus clear that St Jerome had before him, Latin texts which he considered ancient. These are thus then of the age of the Latin Gospels of Carthage, and as he himself says, he only lightly edited them where they differed in substance from his best Greek texts, in the Clementine Gospels, we have essentially, those ancient, ca AD 200 Latin Gospels.
As for general NT witness, here are the words of Tertullian:
en.wikipedia.org/wiki/New_Testament
Which is irrelevant to the argument. There was no gernerally accepted canon – and there were many candidates, should a canon be proclaimed.
So in Tertulians time, the scripture was considered to be:
The Law - Torah or Pentateuch, and
The Gospel(s).
The rest of the OT, and what was to become the rest of the NT, was considered other, but nontheless, useful.
Considered by who? What was the **Church’s **position?
T
his is strange. I agree I cannot find this word in a Latin dictionary, but when translating from a Latin text in which the word appears, the translation is given as I said. This was in the context of the Eusebian ‘canon tables’ if you will excuse the tautology.
Canon comes from Kanon in the sense of “standard” or “that by which all is measured.” Aristotle used it in that sense, calling the good man the Kanon.
The Canon, or the canons, existed long before The Canon was fixed. These list were simply registers of texts which local churches considered to be special. As we see above, Tertulian considered the canon to be:
Genesis,
Exodus’
Leviticus,
Numbers,
Deuteronomy,
Matthew,
Mark,
Luke,
John.
So the Proto NT comprised only the Gospel(s),
You say "proto NT.’ But you invented the term.
Thus you could be referring to the four individual Gospels to which St Jerome refers, or either version of the Diatessaron.
Could, might, perhaps, maybe – but no actual evidence.
For the latter, the original version, now lost in original format, but witnessed in a degenerate Arabic, is witnessed in the original by Eprem Syrus. The later version, composed in Latin, from the Old Latin Gospels of AD 200, is still extant in the Codex Fuldensis, and available in English by my poor translation.
And when was it recognized by the Church as authoratative?
Yes, a list of contents!See, we are both saying the same thing, but using different words, and perhaps having different emphasis.
In other words, there was no agreement – and, in fact, there were heretical texts supported by various groups.

It is not the list that is important, it is the official recognition by the Church – and that was lacking until the late 4th Century.
 
… why isn’t the New Testament solely sufficient to be the Christian Testament?
We need to be careful whenever we take it upon ourselves to decide what part of God’s word we will accept [what is sufficient and what is not]. The Lord himself said:

“Yea, wo be unto him that saith: We have received, and we need no more!
Wo be unto him that shall say: We have received the word of God, and we need no more of the word of God, for we have enough!
For behold, thus saith the Lord God: I will give unto the children of men line upon line, precept upon precept, here a little and there a little; and blessed are those who hearken unto my precepts, and lend an ear unto my counsel, for they shall learn wisdom; for unto him that receiveth I will give more; and from them that shall say, We have enough, from them shall be taken away even that which they have” 3 Nephi 28:27-30
 
We need to be careful whenever we take it upon ourselves to decide what part of God’s word we will accept [what is sufficient and what is not]. The Lord himself said:

“Yea, wo be unto him that saith: We have received, and we need no more!
Wo be unto him that shall say: We have received the word of God, and we need no more of the word of God, for we have enough!
For behold, thus saith the Lord God: I will give unto the children of men line upon line, precept upon precept, here a little and there a little; and blessed are those who hearken unto my precepts, and lend an ear unto my counsel, for they shall learn wisdom; for unto him that receiveth I will give more; and from them that shall say, We have enough, from them shall be taken away even that which they have” 3 Nephi 28:27-30
God never said that. That is not in the Bible.
 
We need to be careful whenever we take it upon ourselves to decide what part of God’s word we will accept [what is sufficient and what is not]. The Lord himself said:

“Yea, wo be unto him that saith: We have received, and we need no more!
Wo be unto him that shall say: We have received the word of God, and we need no more of the word of God, for we have enough!
For behold, thus saith the Lord God: I will give unto the children of men line upon line, precept upon precept, here a little and there a little; and blessed are those who hearken unto my precepts, and lend an ear unto my counsel, for they shall learn wisdom; for unto him that receiveth I will give more; and from them that shall say, We have enough, from them shall be taken away even that which they have” 3 Nephi 28:27-30
What the heck are you talking about?

Thanks.
 
What the heck are you talking about?

Thanks.
The strange reading is taken from the Book of Mormon.
Obviously this is not part of the RC Canon, but one must take care when one claims that it cannot be the word of G_d, for it just might be. There is no power beyond G_d that could prevent it.
It is only in the Koran that the claim is made that it is the final revelation, and that is a misunderstanding of language, for ‘last’ can also be understood as ‘latest’, it is not necessarily final.
 
Which is irrelevant to the argument. There was no gernerally accepted canon – and there were many candidates, should a canon be proclaimed.
Yes, canons were simply list of texts possessed by local churches, not univerally recognised.
Which is irrelevant to the argument. There was no generally accepted canon – and there were many candidates, should a canon be proclaimed.
The witnessed existance of the Four canonical Gospels cannot be irrelevant. consider below:
So in Tertulians time, the scripture was considered to be:
The Law - Torah or Pentateuch, and
The Gospel(s).
The rest of the OT, and what was to become the rest of the NT, was considered other, but nontheless, useful.
Considered by Tertullian, and his considerations were respected.
He was a recognised authority among the Church Fathers.
Canon comes from Kanon in the sense of “standard” or “that by which all is measured.” Aristotle used it in that sense, calling the good man the Kanon.
Hence official list, but seemingly later understood as any list of contents, in tabular form, as in the Eusebian Canon Tables, where the canons here refer to the ten lists.
You say "proto NT.’ But you invented the term.
Perhap I invented the useage, but the meaning of the prefix is well-known, hence the meaning of the term is not a mystery.
Re-reading Tertullian, it is clear that, if we read ‘testament’ as ‘covenant’, which in the Hebrew, it equals, then indeed the Torah is the Old Covenant, and the Gospels are the New Covenant.
Thus you could be referring to the four individual Gospels to which St Jerome refers, or either version of the Diatessaron.

Could, might, perhaps, maybe – but no actual evidence.
Is not St Jerome’s preface to the Gospels, in conjunction with Tertullian’s analysis, acceptable evidence. Both of these are accepted Catholic sources.
And when was it recognized by the Church as authoratative?
Did not St Victor, Bishop of Capua, have to get ‘imprimatur’ for his Evangelical NT Vulgate?,
Remember Pope Gregory gave St Boniface this Evangelical NT Vulgate for use in Germany?
Does that not count as authority?
In other words, there was no agreement – and, in fact, there were heretical texts supported by various groups.
Yes, that is true.
It is not the list that is important, it is the official recognition by the Church – and that was lacking until the late 4th Century.
I think that it was the case, that until the late 4th century, an official list was not considered necessary, else it would have happened sooner.
 
Regarding early canons, they often included the Shepherd of Hermes, the Epistle of Clement to Corinth, the Gospel of Barnabus (?), and maybe also Acts of Peter (?), but they often excluded Hebrews, Revelation, and some of James, Peter, and John’s Epistles.

At the time of Carthage and Hippo there were some 110 books that were considered for the Canon. Many of these had at one time or another been considered Scriptural by individuals with some influence in the local and regionals churches.
 
The Lord also said this to the inhabitants of ancient America:

Wherefore, because that ye have a Bible ye need not suppose that it contains all my words; neither need ye suppose that I have not caused more to be written.
For I command all men, both in the east and in the west, and in the north, and in the south, and in the islands of the sea, that they shall write the words which I speak unto them; for out of the books which shall be written I will judge the world, every man according to their works, according to that which is written.
For behold, I shall speak unto the Jews and they shall write it; and I shall also speak unto the Nephites and they shall write it; and I shall also speak unto the other tribes of the house of Israel, which I have led away, and they shall write it; and I shall also speak unto all nations of the earth and they shall write it.
And it shall come to pass that the Jews shall have the words of the Nephites, and the Nephites shall have the words of the Jews; and the Nephites and the Jews shall have the words of the lost tribes of Israel; and the lost tribes of Israel shall have the words of the Nephites and the Jews. 2 Nephi 29:10-12, see also tinyurl.com/3y5nuc
 
Yes, canons were simply list of texts possessed by local churches, not univerally recognised.
And hence not canons.

We are, after all, the Catholic Church – the Universal Church. We do not have a multiplicity of doctrines and canons.
The witnessed existance of the Four canonical Gospels cannot be irrelevant.
It is irrelevant to this discussion.

There are some 40 known “gospels.” Witnessed existance of any of those additional 36 would be irrelevent, would you not agree? The Gospel of Judas is a case in point – it falls right into your timeframe, and was witnessed by Irenaus.

But so what?
Perhap I invented the useage, but the meaning of the prefix is well-known, hence the meaning of the term is not a mystery.
Re-reading Tertullian, it is clear that, if we read ‘testament’ as ‘covenant’, which in the Hebrew, it equals, then indeed the Torah is the Old Covenant, and the Gospels are the New Covenant.
Tertullian’s Novarum Testamentum clearly refers to the Church, not to a “new book.”
Is not St Jerome’s preface to the Gospels, in conjunction with Tertullian’s analysis, acceptable evidence. Both of these are accepted Catholic sources.
Jerome lived after the Canon of the Bible had been proclaimed by Pope Damasus.
 
The Lord also said this to the inhabitants of ancient America:

Wherefore, because that ye have a Bible ye need not suppose that it contains all my words; neither need ye suppose that I have not caused more to be written.
For I command all men, both in the east and in the west, and in the north, and in the south, and in the islands of the sea, that they shall write the words which I speak unto them; for out of the books which shall be written I will judge the world, every man according to their works, according to that which is written.
For behold, I shall speak unto the Jews and they shall write it; and I shall also speak unto the Nephites and they shall write it; and I shall also speak unto the other tribes of the house of Israel, which I have led away, and they shall write it; and I shall also speak unto all nations of the earth and they shall write it.
And it shall come to pass that the Jews shall have the words of the Nephites, and the Nephites shall have the words of the Jews; and the Nephites and the Jews shall have the words of the lost tribes of Israel; and the lost tribes of Israel shall have the words of the Nephites and the Jews. 2 Nephi 29:10-12, see also tinyurl.com/3y5nuc
None of this is relevant to a discussion about the Bible. This is all fiction.
 
None of this is relevant to a discussion about the Bible. This is all fiction.
Aren’t we discussing what part of God’s word is sufficient, i.e. the NT and not the OT? Is the Bible sufficient, or has God’s word been given to other peoples [other than the Jews].You say it’s fiction. But what if it’s true. Think of that possibility!
 
Aren’t we discussing what part of God’s word is sufficient, i.e. the NT and not the OT? Is the Bible sufficient, or has God’s word been given to other peoples [other than the Jews].You say it’s fiction. But what if it’s true. Think of that possibility!
The Bible is all the public revelation that has been given to us by God. The Church has decided this, and I believe it. End of subject.
 
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