Can reverse transubstantiation occur?

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DanielJohn

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Can the body of Christ turn back into bread again? Certainly, if it were to sit around long enough to get all moldy, then reverse transubstantiation would have occurred. But is there any other scenario whereby reverse transubstantiation can occur?

I’ll state my belief on this question so that you can correct me for any errors you may find in my thinking. I have come to the belief that a child of the devil (1st Joh 3:8,10) can cause reverse transubstantiation to occur by going up to receive the body of Christ. I believe that it is impossible for that particular piece to still be the body of Christ once it touches the tongue of the devil’s child. Light has no communion with darkness (2Co 6:14). If this is true, then the devil’s child would be adding idolatry to the other works of iniquity he or she is already due to receive eternal punishment for (Rev 20:12-13). This is because it is idolatry to acknowledge a piece of bread as the body of Christ.

Notice that once Judas had dipped the sop (Mat 26:23, Joh 13:26), he left immediately (Joh 13:30). This would have been before Jesus changed the bread and wine into His body and blood for the eleven remaining disciples (Mat 26:26-28). I believe that when Jesus said, “what you do - do quickly,” he was telling Judas to decide right then and there whether he was going to repent and stay or whether he was going to go out and do what the devil had already put in his heart to do (Joh 13:2). He chose the latter, of course. I believe the reason why Judas had to make his decision right then and there is because it is impossible for a child of the devil to receive the body of Christ.

If the Church were to ever come to this persuasion on the question of reverse transubstantiation, then the explanation for why communion is sometimes denied to a person might make more sense. It is often misinterpreted as a form of punishment when it is actually the opposite. I look forward to your thoughts on this question. Thank you and may God bless you.
 
Dear friend,

The theological ramifications of your suggestion are mind boggling. The only reason that the Apostles and their successors could change bread and wine into the body and blood of Christ is because Jesus explicitly told them to and thereby gave them the power to do it. He did NOT give them the power to change His body and blood back into bread and wine. Note that such power originates in Him; not in them. He alone has control of the Eucharistic Presence. This is Catholic dogma and Catholics are obliged to hold to it.

Your theory about 1John 1:8 refers to one who is basically in mortal sin. When such a person receives the Eucharist, the Eucharist is greatly dishonored and the person is guilty of sacrilege. Whether or not Judas received the Eucharist is beside the point. He was just as guilty of sacrilege by his betrayal of Jesus as he would be if he received the Eucharist in the state of mortal sin.

Fr. Vincent Serpa, O.P.
 
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