A
aball1035
Guest
I read the other day that Benedict said “In the 1970s, pedophilia was theorized as something fully in conformity with man and even with children” to why the abuses are going on today.
Now I know the media has an ever-present anti-Catholic way about them, so they probably are misquoting what he meant or something.
I’m just wondering why he thinks it was in conformity in the 1970s? I never got that impression at all. I don’t know of any mainstream group that considered it OK, even in the 1970s.
Can someone clarify this for me?
Here’s the link I got it from
belfasttelegraph.co.uk/news/world-news/popersquos-child-porn-normal-claim-sparks-outrage-among-victims-15035449.html#ixzz18lhhP3mx
Now I know the media has an ever-present anti-Catholic way about them, so they probably are misquoting what he meant or something.
I’m just wondering why he thinks it was in conformity in the 1970s? I never got that impression at all. I don’t know of any mainstream group that considered it OK, even in the 1970s.
Can someone clarify this for me?
Here’s the link I got it from
belfasttelegraph.co.uk/news/world-news/popersquos-child-porn-normal-claim-sparks-outrage-among-victims-15035449.html#ixzz18lhhP3mx