S
Sawyer_Dichtel
Guest
I know that it is the teaching of the Church that Mary preserved her virginity throughout the course of her life. I was having trouble reconciling that with Matthew 1:25, which states that Joseph and Mary “did not consummate their marriage until she gave birth to a son” (NIV). To my logic, it would seem that if the marriage was not consummated ‘until she gave birth’, that that statement offers the logical conclusion that the marriage was consumated after she gave birth. What’s my folly here?
Thanks!
Thanks!