Can you give me your interpreatation of this verse

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It was explained to me this way:

As gentiles, we seem to forget that Jesus was a Jew who was speaking to Jews. Jews can forgive a person a wrong against them personally, but cannot forgive the injustice of that wrong that it caused on others. The sinner can only get that assurance of forgiveness of each individual. The act of contrition, so to speak, must be to the person offended. One on one.

But Jesus was saying something entirely different. He was telling them that they can tell others that their sins were forgiven, if it was told to the apostles. Sins that they committed agaisnt another person, other than that apostle. Because things had changed . Because of His shed Blood. The Lamb of God’s blood. There would no longer be a need to shed a lamb’s blood and sprinkle it on the Mercy Seat.

This is the Will of God. Look to the The Lord’s Prayer. “Your Will be done, on earth as it is in Heaven”

Now, the Jewish people in the upper room could fully understand what that meant.

it is the repentence that allows the grace of forgiveness, however you seek forgiveness.
 
Ultimately, we both see our source of forgivness to be flowing from Jesus Christ. We repent of our sins, and turn back the Christ through faith.
Dear 2nd Adam,

If that is all you have to say about my initial response then you have not comprehended the true meaning of priestly confession. Accountability…humility…true repentance.

To me, Confession is the 2nd greatest gift Jesus gave man.

jpaul1953

Incidently, you spoke of how it may not be right to take one verse. It may become overemphasized. Well, look at John 3:16. If I ask Evangelicals where the ‘sinner’s prayer’ is in the Bible, they say John 3:16. Maybe I’m ignorant, but how does John 3:16 in itself cover so much territory. Well, I’m not ignorant and John 3:16 doesn’t. Prime example of how one verse can be misconstrued. This isn’t the same with John 20:22-23
 
It’s hard to come up with a doctrine from one Bible verse. Here are the verses Protestants use to confess our sin to God. 🙂 I’m not sure if the Catholic Church understands this passage to confessing our sins directly to God, or through a Catholic Priest. Maybe someone can give my the Catholic interpertation of the passage in 1 John?

This is the message we have heard from him and proclaim to you, that God is light, and in him is no darkness at all. If we say we have fellowship with him while we walk in darkness, we lie and do not practice the truth. But if we walk in the light, as he is in the light, we have fellowship with one another, and the blood of Jesus his Son cleanses us from all sin. If we say we have no sin, we deceive ourselves, and the truth is not in us. If we confess our sins, he is faithful and just to forgive us our sins and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness. If we say we have not sinned, we make him a liar, and his word is not in us. - 1 John
This is the verse from the bible its John 20:21 23

When he had said this, he breathed on them; and he said to them: Receive ye the Holy Ghost. Whose sins you shall forgive, they are forgiven them; and whose sins you shall retain, they are retained
 
Ultimately, we both see our source of forgivness to be flowing from Jesus Christ. We repent of our sins, and turn back the Christ through faith.
Scripture is clear how that flows and how Jesus wants us to respond.

http://forums.catholic-questions.org/showpost.php?p=5735581&postcount=16
http://forums.catholic-questions.org/showpost.php?p=5737828&postcount=29

You’re not addressing how you as a Protestant gets rid of mortal sin given the scripture presented in post #16.
 
So does this mean we are free to act as we please? Seems like many think so unfortunately. :hmmm:
I just believe the word Of my Lord Jesus Christ, who do you believe.
Here is what He had to say “”""he breathed on them; and he said to them: Receive ye the Holy Ghost. Whose sins you shall forgive, they are forgiven them; and whose sins you shall retain, they are retained
 
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