O
OldeThom
Guest
I am studying the US CCA in preparation for the RCIA class this Sept. I have been a life long protestant, having been raised a Baptist, but associated with other denominations as well. My question is two-fold: Why was it necessary for Mary to be sinless in order to give birth to Jesus? Accepting that Mary was free from original sin at conception, is the Church also saying she was sinless during her life?
I know that no Scripture (Mary being “full of grace”, notwithstanding) supports the Immaculate Conception directly and that it is through Tradition that it has been taught, passed down and finally made doctrine (1854). I have been wading through the catholic.com’s archive and found some very useful articles, as well as elsewhere. I am trying to understand and accept a very foundational part of the Church not deny it. However, I am finding it hard to believe that Mary lived a sinless life, if that is the case, because, as I have come to understand it all my life, no can be forced to stop sinning, or do good for that matter, because of free will. That no human can “become free” of free will. That all corruption in God’s creation was due to original sin, either temporal, eg., painfully stubbing ones toe, a sickness or even aging, or by some willful act or thought, given the desire to sin (Concupiscence).
Thank you in advance,
Thom
I know that no Scripture (Mary being “full of grace”, notwithstanding) supports the Immaculate Conception directly and that it is through Tradition that it has been taught, passed down and finally made doctrine (1854). I have been wading through the catholic.com’s archive and found some very useful articles, as well as elsewhere. I am trying to understand and accept a very foundational part of the Church not deny it. However, I am finding it hard to believe that Mary lived a sinless life, if that is the case, because, as I have come to understand it all my life, no can be forced to stop sinning, or do good for that matter, because of free will. That no human can “become free” of free will. That all corruption in God’s creation was due to original sin, either temporal, eg., painfully stubbing ones toe, a sickness or even aging, or by some willful act or thought, given the desire to sin (Concupiscence).
Thank you in advance,
Thom