Can you help me with this?

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Caldera599

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I’m dealing with a fellow Catholic who doesn’t believe that sodomy is one of the sins which cries to heaven for vengeance. Is there anyone who can provide a really good explanation of why this is? I’d appreciate it.
 
Is the issue that he doesn’t think it’s a sin at all, or that he doesn’t think that it’s a mortal sin, or that he doesn’t think that any sin is something that will call down God’s vengeance?
 
Start with the Holy Bible. This sin is one of the few that is an issue in both Testaments.

ICXC NIKA
 
Is the issue that he doesn’t think it’s a sin at all, or that he doesn’t think that it’s a mortal sin, or that he doesn’t think that any sin is something that will call down God’s vengeance?
That it won’t call down God’s vengeance because he supposedly can’t find the teaching, therefore it doesn’t exist/has no basis. In his own words, he can’t anything buy “homo calls down God’s vengeance” but since he can’t find a citation, those teachings don’t exist.
 
Oh, I should mention he tried to suggest it was “gang rape” that enraged God to destroy Sodom and Gommorah, not homosexual sex.
 
That it won’t call down God’s vengeance because he supposedly can’t find the teaching, therefore it doesn’t exist/has no basis. In his own words, he can’t anything buy “homo calls down God’s vengeance” but since he can’t find a citation, those teachings don’t exist.
So, to be clear, is he arguing that homosexual acts aren’t sinful, or that sins don’t call down for vengeance? Because if it’s the latter, that’s really easy. It’s called a “turn of phrase”. What it means is that homosexual acts are mortal sins, which separate us from God’s love and can ultimately lead to eternal damnation. That’s what it comes to, regardless of whether you call it as God exacting vengeance on the wicked, or the wicked choosing their own desires over a relationship with God.
 
No, he argued that this particular sin doesn’t call down God’s vengeance because he can find no proof, and he disputes Biblical evidence because it doesn’t specifically mention homosexual sex, despite God’s rage being ignited by the men wanting to have sex with the angels.
 
No, he argued that this particular sin doesn’t call down God’s vengeance because he can find no proof, and he disputes Biblical evidence because it doesn’t specifically mention homosexual sex, despite God’s rage being ignited by the men wanting to have sex with the angels.
Then, I would go with the argument that whether or not God decides to torch your city because of a sin, it’s not going to make a lick of difference to you personally when you are eternally separated from the love of God. A mortal sin is a mortal sin.
 
Your friend is probably confused by the fact that God seemed to act directly with Sodom and Gomorrah, destroying both cities in dramatic fashion, those people KNEW it was coming from God too, versus todays world with plenty of cities where sexual sin is plentiful…yet God does not destroy them…Heck, they dont even get warnings!??

Ive heard many people ask this type of question, many claim this is one reason they dont believe the bible, as if God did that back then, why would he not do the same today, that leads them to believe the bible is fiction.

I dont know the answer, the only I can think of is it may a time issue, Im not sure how long the sin went on in those biblical cities before God finally said enough is enough, it could have been 100s of years, if you look at our modern world, sexual immorality has really only gone off the charts fairly recently (when you look at the big picture).
 
I’m dealing with a fellow Catholic who doesn’t believe that sodomy is one of the sins which cries to heaven for vengeance. Is there anyone who can provide a really good explanation of why this is? I’d appreciate it.
I don’t either.

See Ezekiel 16:49-50
49 " 'Now this was the sin of your sister Sodom: She and her daughters were arrogant, overfed and unconcerned; they did not help the poor and needy. 50 They were haughty and did detestable things before me. Therefore I did away with them as you have seen.
So: “arrogant”, “overfed”, “unconcerned”, “did not help the poor and needy”, “haughty” (a repeat of arrogant) and “did detestable things before me”. To my way of thinking being arrogant, overfed and unconcerned while ignoring the poor and needy is pretty detestable.

Not a single word about sodomy.

I guess the question that occurs to me is why you would think it is?

The other three “vengeance sins” are direct harm to other humans.
  1. Willful murder
  2. Oppression of the poor
  3. Defrauding workers of their wages
And you think the fourth one is something two consenting adults do in the privacy of their bedroom?

Why? How is sodomy linked to the other three? Who is crying for vengeance in that scenario? Obviously the murder victim, the oppressed poor person, and the unpaid worker are all crying for vengeance, but who is crying for vengeance in sodomy?
 
I think one thing that is being asked for is specific bible references on this. Yes, it’s found in both the Old and New Testament. I can’t think of the exact references at the moment, but I do know that St. Paul, in one of his many letters, addressed homosexual sex as being one of the things that goes against God’s given law, and against His love.
 
ST. Paul to the Romans1: l: 24-32 speaks about homo-sexuality and God’s actions
 
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