Can you give an example of what “a legalistic validity of Sacraments like the RCC” is?
That when the motions of a Sacrament is performed (matter, formula, minister), then the Sacrament is there. This means a bishop who leaved the Catholic Church can still validly ordain (case in point, Old Catholics), and that validly ordained priests and bishops can still celebrate the Eucharist validly (case in point, the Catholic Church recognizes the validity of the Eucharist of many other Churches whom they deemed to have a valid priesthood, like the Eastern Orthodox, Oriental Orthodox, Assyrian Church of the East, and the numerous breakaway groups from the Roman Catholic Church).
Schism and heretic are two totally different scenarios that apply to the constitutions of the Church and cannot be grouped in the same category. A schismatic bishop can celebrate the Eucharist until the schism outcome determines the bishop’s fate of church communion and validity. A Heretical Bishop unless he repents, becomes ex-communicated. In both severe negative outcomes these bishop’s remain bishops without their faculties to exercise their espiscopacy within the Church.
Excommunication and schism are the same thing when talking to a bishop (an individual layperson cannot schism). When you are excommunicated, you are not in communion with anybody from whom you are excommunicated. Thus you are in schism with them.
Heretic just means that you are guilty of teaching doctrine contrary to the established true faith. Schism is a break for various reasons. There are schisms because of doctrinal differences, and this is where the other side is condemned as a heretic. And there are schisms from political or other non-doctrinal matters.
No, the West believes that what God has joined together via His Sacraments such as Holy Orders “let no man put asunder”. Do the Orthodox actually believe they have the power to put asunder what God has joined together? Talk about infallibility in the extreme and primacy of man over God. If Orthodox can do this, you win infallibility and the primacy.
But the West’s view of “once a priest always a priest” has no scriptural basis. The passage that is always quoted, “you are a priest forever in the order of Melchizedek,” refers to the priesthood of Christ, not of individual bishops and presbyters. In Orthodoxy there is only one priesthood, Christ’s. Various passages attest that Jesus is the only High Priest. Bishops and presbyters are extensions of Christ’s priesthood (actually according to Peter 1, all of us are members of the Royal Priesthood, all baptized Christians that is), and thus if a bishop of priest leaves the body of Christ, they lose the ability to exercise the priesthood of Christ.
That’s not true Constantine as it pertains in the West. The faculties of the excommunicated bishop or priest have been removed and cannot exercise them within the Church. A perfect example of this exists within Protestantism. In the East, the excommunicated have not broken with apostolic succession and clarification is being met by Peter to bring his brethren back to the faith, it may take another few centuries, but what is time to God? Those with valid Holy Orders and apostolic succession, the Pope has no power to remove what God has joined, only Peter is commissioned by Jesus himself to bring them back.
Peace be with you
There are no faculties in the West to celebrate the Eucharist. A priest can celebrate Mass anytime he wants. There are faculties to “licitly” celebrate the Eucharist, but a priest always celebrates the Eucharist validly. Otherwise, how do you explain the SSPX whom the Vatican themselves declared to not have an active ministry in the Church, yet everyone agrees their Masses and Eucharist are valid?
In the Orthodox Church, the “right” to celebrate the Eucharist belongs to the bishops alone. Presbyters get the antimension as a sign of a bishop’s permission for them to celebrate the Eucharist. No antimens, no Eucharist.