But if Jesus himself is Godâs love for us, then it doesnât really make sense for us to speak of Godâs love for us before Jesus.
It is true that Jesusâ merits extend into all time so that there was no time when we didnât have access to Godâs love. But it also means that, apart from Jesus, we are infinitely separated from God.
We wouldnât exist if it wasnât for Christ, true. But if we try to conceive of our lives without Christ, we have no access to God.
True, but apart from Jesus if we donât have Godâs love, we only have separation from God, or Godâs wrath.
Good morning, CrossofChrist!
Let me begin by taking one line from above and substituting a few words:
âBut it also means that, apart from God, we are infinitely apart from God.â
Well, this does make sense, but then we run across that issue again, that we are nothing without God, (without God, there is no âIâ) which is legitimate. Also legitimate, I think, is the view that it is possible to separate ourselves from God, that without God, there is an âIâ. I have experience the same sense of separation when I have sinned, when I feel guilty. I sense a rejection from God, Godâs wrath, etc. So, even though I sense that I am separated, I am sensing, therefore I am.
Oh, I have accidentally added there, what I see as a means of harmonizing the two legitimate standpoints. I will let it sit for now, and you can respond if you like.
The point of saying that there is a debt to justice by committing sin is because it creates a separation from God. The point of saying Jesus cancels out that debt is because he is what gives us access to God. Even if at every moment we are given that access (whether or not we choose to use that would mean whether or not we sin).
Again, I see the legitimacy of the idea that sin separates us from God, as I explained above.
However, I am wondering, taking the question from the angle of spirituality, do you see the footprints in the sand? When I
look back on the times that I was most enslaved by sin, there are only one set of prints, those of God carrying me. In other words, when I am enslaved by my appetites, wanting, anger, trying to find fulfillment in all the wrong ways, I do sense (eventually) that there is something very lacking, that God has rejected and abandoned me. On the other hand, when I have repented, (and that repentance
includes forgiving myself, at the deepest level, for what I had done,) then I see that there never was a separation in the first place.
My quote:
OneSheep:
So, a block is a âdebtâ if there is a creditor, right? In one legitimate view, God is a creditor. In the other legitimate view, God is there with open arms, but we block Him out (even though He is within all of us). In the former view, God disfavors until payment is made, and then the door is opened. In the latter view, God favors all along (even though we do not realize it), but our own ability to love and live in this love is somewhat blocked. In the latter view, the door is already open, but we do not know that it is, and we do not know to get through it.
Your response:
CrossofChrist:
If there wasnât Jesus but still us with our sin, that would mean there would be no extension of love from God to us, which would therefore mean yes, God would disfavor us.
But God gave us Jesus, and because his life extends into eternity via the hypostatic union, God favors us all along.
It sounds like we are at a chicken-egg point here, like âwhat came first, Godâs forgiveness or manâs sin?â. So, because of Jesus, God favors us all along. So, let me do another word substitution: Because of God, God favors us all along. Is this something like trying to determine what happened in the first microseconds of the creation of the universe?
So, I am wondering, can you can see the legitimacy of the point of view that God (Jesus) would never disfavor us, even for a microsecond?
Allow me to pull out a modern experiment in robotics,
here,
In this experiment, which was meant to examine the evolution of communication, the robots eventually âliedâ to each other, contributing to the ability for some robots to have more âsurviving offspringâ than others. Letâs say I have the forethought to know that this would happen in the experiment. Would I go through with it, or would I not? Would I love my robots, regardless of the capacity to lie, (which I gave them), or would I not? Would I resent their lying?
Christâs sacrifice is by nature also expiatory, because it also makes up for our sins. Maybe my answers above will explain how better.
Yes, I see the legitimacy of âChrist sacrifice makes up for our sins, because it makes up for our sin.â And this creation of debt, that is, the sense of God as Creditor, is an extension of the sense of Godâs wrath, which is legitimate, right? I guess what I am still not seeing is that you can also see the legitimacy of the other view, that God never disfavored, not even for a microsecond. Not because of payment, but because of lack of wrath, lack of resentment, lack of
incurment. Do you see the legitimacy of this view, or is it one to eliminate?
Thanks for your response, and your patience!
