Catechism Compared to Bible: Slavery?

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Hello, I’m trying to find some answers on a question I have, and I was wondering if you could give me some insight, perhaps I’m misinterpreting something.

I was looking into what the Catechism of the Catholic Church says about slavery, and it says

"2414 The seventh commandment forbids acts or enterprises that for any reason - selfish or ideological, commercial, or totalitarian - lead to the enslavement of human beings, to their being bought, sold and exchanged like merchandise, in disregard for their personal dignity. It is a sin against the dignity of persons and their fundamental rights to reduce them by violence to their productive value or to a source of profit. St. Paul directed a Christian master to treat his Christian slave "no longer as a slave but more than a slave, as a beloved brother, . . . both in the flesh and in the Lord.“194” (Catechism)

I assume this shows that the system of slavery that allows one to buy, sell, and/or trade slaves is inherently evil.

I know we’re not under the Old Testament laws, but I was wondering why God would permit the Ancient Israelites to do something that is considered intrinsictly evil and not able to be supported by really any reason:

“44 As for the male and female slaves whom you may have, it is from the nations around you that you may acquire male and female slaves. 45 You may also acquire them from among the aliens residing with you, and from their families that are with you, who have been born in your land; and they may be your property. 46 You may keep them as a possession for your children after you, for them to inherit as property. These you may treat as slaves, but as for your fellow Israelites, no one shall rule over the other with harshness.” (Leviticus 25:44)

Is there a reason for this permission (I think some versions of the Bible say “buy” instead of “acquire”) ? :confused:

Also, should we consider indentured servitude as immoral as well ? :confused:

Thank you in advance! 👍
 
Welcome! 🙂

Two considerations:
  1. Slavery was tolerated and given strict laws & rules in the Old Testament in order to curb abuses occurring in the world at the time. Israel was called to be God’s Holy People, different from all the nations around. The Gentiles enslaved women and treated them like garbage, but God’s rule of indentured servitude was radical for the time, in that it gave protections to women. The same goes for slavery rules in the Old Testament - they are not a condoning of slavery by God, but an attempt by God to show us the first light of Divine Love by ordering men to treat their slaves well, and not to abuse them. Step by step is how God works. 🙂
  2. The New Testament has become the fulfillment of the Old in our Lord Jesus Christ. He has taken all that we could not accomplish, and said “It is Finished”. This includes every last part of The Law. Only those which are repeated in the New Testament by the Church are binding upon us. Paul never commands or allows slavery, but prepares the way for its end by ordering Philemon and others to be gentle to the slaves that they do happen to have.
All this must be seen in the light of the Love of God. 🙂
 
Classicist said:
Welcome! 🙂

Two considerations:
  1. Slavery was tolerated and given strict laws & rules in the Old Testament in order to curb abuses occurring in the world at the time. Israel was called to be God’s Holy People, different from all the nations around. The Gentiles enslaved women and treated them like garbage, but God’s rule of indentured servitude was radical for the time, in that it gave protections to women. The same goes for slavery rules in the Old Testament - they are not a condoning of slavery by God, but an attempt by God to show us the first light of Divine Love by ordering men to treat their slaves well, and not to abuse them. Step by step is how God works. 🙂
  2. The New Testament has become the fulfillment of the Old in our Lord Jesus Christ. He has taken all that we could not accomplish, and said “It is Finished”. This includes every last part of The Law. Only those which are repeated in the New Testament by the Church are binding upon us. Paul never commands or allows slavery, but prepares the way for its end by ordering Philemon and others to be gentle to the slaves that they do happen to have.
All this must be seen in the light of the Love of God. 🙂
Click to expand...
Thank you, I’m glad to be here, and thank you for your answer! 🙂

1.) So, would you say that slavery is wrong, like divorce (which I believe God hates, and therefore it’s evil), but was regulated to prevent further abuse, even if it was still an imperfect system ? I can see this, since God didn’t actually create slavery, and without man sinning, then there’d be no slavery in the world.

2.) Yes, I noticed that too. It seems that in many places, God was merciful and understanding of His people and did not command them to stop ALL immorality at one specific point, but worked with their culture and molded them over time.

The fulfillment of this process is still ongoing through the Church (as we develop a better understanding of faith), and God’s plan was that slavery would die out anyway. Would you agree with this ?

Thanks again! 🙂 👍
 
If you notice how God says that slaves are to be treated isn’t really what we would consider slavery, is it? It says that they should be cared for, like PEOPLE, not animals. It is more indentured servitude rather than slavery, as the ‘slaves’ are working off a debt.
 
There is danger in using words in english of today versus words of 2000 years ago in Aramaic, Hebrew, Greek and Latin.

So, in the interest of clarity, and honesty, it is important to review the word “slavery” from all sides.

It is also useful if people today review “human trafficking” … which is the “modern” term for slavery.

For example, not only read this … but also read the comments:

huffingtonpost.com/greg-carey/slavery-and-the-bible_b_880756.html

And another:

mertsahinoglu.com/research/indentured-servitude-colonial-america/

Also review the idea of indentured servitude … and review what happened to the length of the term under various circumstances.

Just one example:

pbs.org/opb/historydetectives/feature/indentured-servants-in-the-us/

And another … each with a different perspective:

en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Indentured_servant

First black slaveowner:

current.com/groups/learn/92619535_first-state-recognized-slave-was-owned-by-anthony-johnson-a-black-man.htm
 
Monte_RCMS said:
There is danger in using words in english of today versus words of 2000 years ago in Aramaic, Hebrew, Greek and Latin.

So, in the interest of clarity, and honesty, it is important to review the word “slavery” from all sides.

It is also useful if people today review “human trafficking” … which is the “modern” term for slavery.

For example, not only read this … but also read the comments:

huffingtonpost.com/greg-carey/slavery-and-the-bible_b_880756.html

And another:

mertsahinoglu.com/research/indentured-servitude-colonial-america/

Also review the idea of indentured servitude … and review what happened to the length of the term under various circumstances.

Just one example:

pbs.org/opb/historydetectives/feature/indentured-servants-in-the-us/

And another … each with a different perspective:

en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Indentured_servant

First black slaveowner:

current.com/groups/learn/92619535_first-state-recognized-slave-was-owned-by-anthony-johnson-a-black-man.htm
Click to expand...
So, would you agree with the post Classicist made ?
 
SpeakKindly said:
Hello, I’m trying to find some answers on a question I have, and I was wondering if you could give me some insight, perhaps I’m misinterpreting something.

I was looking into what the Catechism of the Catholic Church says about slavery, and it says

"2414 The seventh commandment forbids acts or enterprises that for any reason - selfish or ideological, commercial, or totalitarian - lead to the enslavement of human beings, to their being bought, sold and exchanged like merchandise, in disregard for their personal dignity. It is a sin against the dignity of persons and their fundamental rights to reduce them by violence to their productive value or to a source of profit. St. Paul directed a Christian master to treat his Christian slave "no longer as a slave but more than a slave, as a beloved brother, . . . both in the flesh and in the Lord.“194” (Catechism)

I assume this shows that the system of slavery that allows one to buy, sell, and/or trade slaves is inherently evil.

I know we’re not under the Old Testament laws, but I was wondering why God would permit the Ancient Israelites to do something that is considered intrinsictly evil and not able to be supported by really any reason:

“44 As for the male and female slaves whom you may have, it is from the nations around you that you may acquire male and female slaves. 45 You may also acquire them from among the aliens residing with you, and from their families that are with you, who have been born in your land; and they may be your property. 46 You may keep them as a possession for your children after you, for them to inherit as property. These you may treat as slaves, but as for your fellow Israelites, no one shall rule over the other with harshness.” (Leviticus 25:44)

Is there a reason for this permission (I think some versions of the Bible say “buy” instead of “acquire”) ? :confused:

Also, should we consider indentured servitude as immoral as well ? :confused:

Thank you in advance! 👍
Click to expand...
Because “Christ died for us while we were yet sinners”, and before that God worked with humankind, through His chosen people, while they were yet sinners. If He didn’t there’d be nothing for Him to work with at all! Ultimately He’ll no longer endure evil at all; the wheat and tares will be separated.
 
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