P
Peter_J
Guest
Yes and no, I don’t believe it’s quite that simple.In the ancient undivided Church the Bishop of Rome only had a primacy of honor. He did not have universal jurisdiction. **Like every other Bishop, he was subject to the authority of an Ecumenical Council. **
If the 34th Apostolic Canon,
“The bishops of every nation must acknowledge him who is first among them and account him as their head, and do nothing of consequence without his consent but neither let him (who is the first) do anything without the consent of all; for so there will be unanimity…”
applies at the universal level as well, then the Pope (as the one “who is first among them”) has a say in the decisions of an ecumenical council.
Alright, but of course the fact that he gave in doesn’t prove that he had to give in. (If it did, then we could say “So-and-so gave in to Pope So-and-so, so So-and-so had to give in to Pope So-and-so.”)The II Council of Constantinople demanded that Pope Vigilius accept its decrees. He hesitated, but finally under threat of excommunication signed the decree.