You really do not want to open a discussion of some of the means that Rome has used to extend its Church such as the Inquisition and the treatment of Native Americans by the Spanish.
Archpriest John W. Morris
Fr. John-
I’ve been thinking about this statement this morning, and the more I do, the more I’m really surprised that you would post this. Typically, charges like this one are the starting point of beginning apologists, and since I had you pegged as someone who is not a neophyte, what on earth would be your motivation for making it? To score cheap debating points?
Modern scholars have backed waaaay off on the rhetoric employed by the English polemicists who first used the Inquisition in their propaganda war against the Spanish back in the day. As an educated man, you must be aware of this. Consequently, you have either disagreed with the research or simply chosen to ignore it because the cudgel fits your hand too comfortably.
Now, beyond all that, what are we AS CHRISTIANS AND BROTHERS IN THE LORD, to say when non-believers make accusations like this against your Church or mine? Should we drop our heads in shame because, doggone it, they found our Achilles’ heel? Or should we point out that the Church is NOT a refuge of saints but a hospital for sinners? Should we take the time to explain that while we strive for holiness, sometimes we come up short? And would it be reasonable for us to cite Jesus’ own teaching on the matter on “Moses’ seat” found in the opening verses of Matthew 23: “Then Jesus said to the crowds and to his disciples: ‘The teachers of the law and the Pharisees sit in Moses’ seat. So you must obey them and do everything they tell you. But do not do what they do, for they do not practice what they preach.’” (Matthew 23:1-3)
As you well know, “Moses’ seat” is a phrase that referred to a position of legitimate teaching authority held by the teachers of the law and the Pharisees. Later, Jesus condemned these men as “hypocrites,” “blind guides,” “blind fools,” “serpents,” and a “brood of vipers.” But in the passage above, Jesus specifically instructed the crowds and his disciples to obey these leaders – despite their corruption – because of the authority of their position. That is sobering stuff.
If it were true that immorality invalidated a religious leader’s authority, then why did Jesus command his followers to “obey and do everything” the scribes and Pharisees tell them? Jesus merely admonished his followers not to follow their hypocritical example. There is not even the slightest hint that their positions had been forfeited or abrogated because of their hypocrisy or immorality. If anything, the reverse is true because Jesus validated these leaders’ office by telling people to obey them. From this, we see that sin and corruption found in the individual office holders has no impact whatsoever on the authority of the office itself.
Consequently, I find your citation of the Inquisition to be unworthy of serious consideration as an argument against the supremacy of the Bishop of Rome. You have other objections, of course, but the scriptural example given provides more than enough evidence that historical events and the human decisions that led to them cannot and have not abrogated the divine authority established by Jesus in Peter, the Royal Steward (cf. Mt. 16:18-10, Is. 20:22).