Yes, I know. You keep repeating that and I could almost type it verbatim myself after having read it so many times. But as Cardinal Newman pointed out (you saw the post, right?), the development of the papacy may not have been required during the very time period you keep referencing. Doctrine develops to meet a need. So, was the papacy as understood by Catholics today even necessary during the first millennium? Apparently not, since you argue that it did not exist, but it was there in latent form all along.
Fr. John, all the Fathers had to work with was Scripture and Tradition. And early on, they didn’t have much Tradition or any of the councils. Today, we don’t have the benefit of speaking live to any of the ECF’s and consequently, we have to make do with our interpretations of what extant material we do have. That can be fuzzy since both of us can appeal to the Fathers in support of our positions. But if I am honest, I can’t demand that you show that the consensus of the Fathers denied the universality of the papacy just as you can’t reasonably demand that I show you a full-blown understanding of the papacy from men who had no need of it as we do today. Neither of us would have expected Peter or Paul to have the same understanding of the trinity, the incarnation or the Eucharist that we have today, would we?
However, it seems to me that like the Fathers, you should be able to pick up a Bible and prove to me that the Pope is not the head of the universal Church. Conversely, I have the Scriptures, also, and I should be able to open them up and demonstrate convincingly that my understanding of the papacy is not misguided or ill-informed.
Make sense?