Catholic Apologists and the Greek Word Trogo (“Eat my flesh” John 6)

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Hi, I live outside the US, so far I havent read any refutation . If you have intersting material show it here. Thanks
I’m not going to argue about one word in the Bible. The word trogo isn’t the only biblical basis for Catholic belief in the Eucharist.

There is much more - the bread of the presence in the temple, the fact that the Passover lamb was eaten - and I hope you have the opportunity to read the book.

-Tim-
 
I’m not going to argue about one word in the Bible. The word trogo isn’t the only biblical basis for Catholic belief in the Eucharist.

There is much more - the bread of the presence in the temple, the fact that the Passover lamb was eaten - and I hope you have the opportunity to read the book.

-Tim-
Yes, you may have another evidences for the eucharist.But I when I post this I thought it was time thats RCC apologist stop using the “trogos argument”

It is a sad thing you canot send outised the US. Thanks anyway.
 
Rome Apologists and the Greek Word Trogo (“Eat my flesh” John 6)“Catholic Answers” says the following about the Greek word trogo :”The Greek word used for “eats” trogon is very blunt and has the sense of “chewing” or “gnawing. This is not language of metaphor. Bob Sungenis says “There is simply no logical reason to switch form the more generic phago (eat) to the more praphic trogo (chew). Apparently, Rome’s apologists believe the word “chew” cannot be the language of metaphor because it is simply too graphic or vivid to be anything other than the literal truth. Not so the more mundane “eat,” which as Sugnenis points out, can be used metaphorically. Keating himself simply asserts—without proof—that such is “not the language of metaphor.” But why not? Is there something intrinsically literal about the word “chew” in English or in Greek? If you think it through, virtually any word in any language can be used metaphorically no matter how graphic or vivid it may be. In fact, the more vivid and evocative the word, the more it lends itself to being used as a metaphor. Apparently they don’t know well what a metaphor is. Metaphor: “A picture is a thousand words”. In a metaphor real objects or physical events represent something else. A metaphor is a colorful expression used for literary effect which may be a word or phrase that departs from literal language. The purpose of metaphors is: add color and vividness, attract attention and make abstract or intellectual ideas more concrete. All things being equal, one could just as easily make the case that Jesus chose the more vivid “chew” precisely because it was more conducive to metaphor. “Chew” may simply be a more graphic metaphor than “eat.” Some say contextual rather than non-contextual usage is the primary criterion for determining whether or not trogo is metaphorical in John 6.
I agree that ‘gnaw’ or ‘chew’ COULD be being used metaphorically. I also agree that to determine whether it is or not we need to look at the context. And the context just doesn’t lend itself to a metaphorical reading IMO.

The Jews are already confused about Jesus’ words in verse 53, before he even uses the word trogo, and are understanding him literally. Up until now, as you know, he’s only been using the word esthio. (another form of phago) The point is, they obviously aren’t getting the metaphor. And it’s not just the crowd who only wanted to see more miracles who are misunderstanding him, it’s his disciples too. Believers. People who had been following him for months.

So given that context, it makes no sense for Jesus to intensify his language. If his listeners were already confused with the less graphic esthio, why on earth would he go with such a visual? Chewing flesh just doesn’t exactly convey the message of ‘‘have faith in me’’ The metaphor was clearly going over their heads, why make it even more confusing?

Also, consider that pretty much every other example we have of people misunderstanding Jesus’ words as literal, either he or John in his commentary clears up the real meaning for us. But in this one place, neither Jesus nor John explained what was really meant? Even if Jesus did purposefully leave all those people misunderstanding him, why wouldn’t John put in a simple clarification like he did in John 2:20?

Personally, it makes more sense to say that the reason there is no clarification was because one wasn’t needed, and not that Jesus expected us to figure out a metaphor that has no obvious connection to what he was trying to teach. They had understood him correctly. He was speaking literally. We really do have to eat his flesh.

It is a hard saying, but where else can we go?
 
Context is everything. The fact that the New Testament teaches the Eucharist is very clear and does not require the mental and theological http://i66.photobucket.com/albums/h244/corona_stellarum/Smilies/flip_emoticon_jfo.gif that this argument puts forth.

See my article The Eucharist IS Scriptural

Also see the following from CA.
The Institution of the Mass
Fundamentalists insist that when Christ says, “This is my body,” he is speaking figuratively. But this interpretation is precluded by Paul’s discussion of the Eucharist in 1 Corinthians 11:23–29 and by the whole tenor of John 6, the chapter where the Eucharist is promised. The Greek word for “body” in John 6:54 is sarx
, which means physical flesh, and the word for “eats” (trogon) translates as “gnawing” or “chewing.” This is certainly not the language of metaphor. Christ in the Eucharist
Fundamentalist writers who comment on John 6 also assert that one can show Christ was speaking only metaphorically by comparing verses like John 10:9 (“I am the door”) and John 15:1 (“I am the true vine”). The problem is that there is not a connection to John 6:35, “I am the bread of life.” “I am the door” and “I am the vine” make sense as metaphors because Christ is like a door—we go to heaven through him—and he is also like a vine—we get our spiritual sap through him. But Christ takes John 6:35 far beyond symbolism by saying, “For my flesh is food indeed, and my blood is drink indeed” (John 6:55).
He continues: “As the living Father sent me, and I live because of the Father, so he who eats me will live because of me” (John 6:57). The Greek word used for “eats” (trogon) is very blunt and has the sense of “chewing” or “gnawing.” This is not the language of metaphor.
 
In addition to these passages of the New Testament I would also like to add this very clear quote from St. Ignatius of Antioch, who was a close friend and disciple of St. John the evangelist , the bishop of Antioch and a martyr for the faith.

Your argument fails in the face of the plain statement from the Early Church itself.
CHAP. VII.–LET US STAND ALOOF FROM SUCH HERETICS.

They abstain from the Eucharist and from prayer,(7) because they confess not the Eucharist to be the flesh of our Saviour Jesus Christ, which suffered for our sins, and which the Father, of His goodness, raised up again. Those, therefore, who speak against this gift of God, incur death(11) in the midst of their disputes. But it were better for them to treat it with respect,(13) that they also might rise again. It is fitting, therefore, that ye should keep aloof from such persons, and not to speak of(15) them either in private or in public, but to give heed to the prophets, and above all, to the Gospel, in which the passion[of Christ] has been revealed to us, and the resurrection has been fully proved.(16) But avoid all divisions, as the beginning of evils.
The Epistle of Ignatius to the Smyrnaeans
 
Blood, flesh (literal) = Jesus

Eat, drink (figurative) = Believe

Believe in Jesus.
Blood, flesh (literal) = Jesus x Resurrection and Ascension = Divine Jesus

Eat, drink (literal) = Belief in Divine Jesus x “This is my body, this is my blood” = literally consuming body, blood, soul and DIVINITY.

“Do this in memory of me” (literal) = Obedience
 
Okay since we know there are two types of thinking, carnal and spiritual, could Jesus have meant both at the exact same time?
 
You are ignoring the context, the situation in which that teachings was given, if you ignore you wont get it
Ignoring the context? I don’t think so. It is a hard saying to except, and it takes faith to see it, but I’m not ignoring the context. It’s throughout the whole Bible… Jesus is the Lamb of God.
 
I agree that ‘gnaw’ or ‘chew’ COULD be being used metaphorically. I also agree that to determine whether it is or not we need to look at the context. And the context just doesn’t lend itself to a metaphorical reading IMO.

The Jews are already confused about Jesus’ words in verse 53, before he even uses the word trogo, and are understanding him literally. Up until now, as you know, he’s only been using the word esthio. (another form of phago) The point is, they obviously aren’t getting the metaphor. And it’s not just the crowd who only wanted to see more miracles who are misunderstanding him, it’s his disciples too. Believers. People who had been following him for months.

So given that context, it makes no sense for Jesus to intensify his language. If his listeners were already confused with the less graphic esthio, why on earth would he go with such a visual? Chewing flesh just doesn’t exactly convey the message of ‘‘have faith in me’’ The metaphor was clearly going over their heads, why make it even more confusing?

Also, consider that pretty much every other example we have of people misunderstanding Jesus’ words as literal, either he or John in his commentary clears up the real meaning for us. But in this one place, neither Jesus nor John explained what was really meant? Even if Jesus did purposefully leave all those people misunderstanding him, why wouldn’t John put in a simple clarification like he did in John 2:20?

Personally, it makes more sense to say that the reason there is no clarification was because one wasn’t needed, and not that Jesus expected us to figure out a metaphor that has no obvious connection to what he was trying to teach. They had understood him correctly. He was speaking literally. We really do have to eat his flesh.

It is a hard saying, but where else can we go?
I will answer you later to answer you more throughly.For the moment I want to
remind you what a metaphor and simile is:

While the simile gently states that one thing is like or resembles another, the metaphor boldly and warmly declares that one thing IS the other. While the Simile says “All flesh is AS grass” (1Pe 1:24), the Metaphor carries the figure across at once, and says “All flesh** IS** grass” (Isa 40:6). This is the distinction between the two…The Simile says “All we like sheep,” while the Metaphor declares that “we are the sheep of His pasture.”…Ps 23:1 The Lord is my Shepherd”… It is He who tends his People, and does more for them than any earthly shepherd does for his sheep…Metaphors are so numerous in the Old Testament, that it is impossible to give more than these few to serve as specimens and examples.

Catholics like you say, “we have to look at the reaction of the people to know what the teaching means” , while Christians say “we have to analize the teaching itself to know what the teaching means”. Well bud I dont agree with you hermenutical approach, nevetheless I will talk with you in your terms. By the way I am really glad you broguht up John 2.

Talk to you later.
 
Catholics like you say, “we have to look at the reaction of the people to know what the teaching means” , while Christians say “we have to analize the teaching itself to know what the teaching means”. Well bud I dont agree with you hermenutical approach, nevetheless I will talk with you in your terms. By the way I am really glad you broguht up John 2.

Talk to you later.
Catholics are Christians, in fact, the very first Christians, following after the very first Apostles of Christ.

This just shows how reading the Bible, separated from the Church, leads to division and not unity.
God Bless you.
 
Catholics are Christians, in fact, the very first Christians, following after the very first Apostles of Christ.

This just shows how reading the Bible, separated from the Church, leads to division and not unity.
God Bless you.
I am talking abotu the reaction of the people in Jhon 6.
 
Catholics are Christians, in fact, the very first Christians, following after the very first Apostles of Christ.

This just shows how reading the Bible, separated from the Church, leads to division and not unity.
God Bless you.
:sad_yes:
 
I agree that ‘gnaw’ or ‘chew’ COULD be being used metaphorically. I also agree that to determine whether it is or not we need to look at the context. And the context just doesn’t lend itself to a metaphorical reading IMO.

The Jews are already confused about Jesus’ words in verse 53, before he even uses the word trogo, and are understanding him literally. Up until now, as you know, he’s only been using the word esthio. (another form of phago) The point is, they obviously aren’t getting the metaphor. And it’s not just the crowd who only wanted to see more miracles who are misunderstanding him, it’s his disciples too. Believers. People who had been following him for months.

So given that context, it makes no sense for Jesus to intensify his language. If his listeners were already confused with the less graphic esthio, why on earth would he go with such a visual? Chewing flesh just doesn’t exactly convey the message of ‘‘have faith in me’’ The metaphor was clearly going over their heads, why make it even more confusing?

Also, consider that pretty much every other example we have of people misunderstanding Jesus’ words as literal, either he or John in his commentary clears up the real meaning for us. But in this one place, neither Jesus nor John explained what was really meant? Even if Jesus did purposefully leave all those people misunderstanding him, why wouldn’t John put in a simple clarification like he did in John 2:20?

Personally, it makes more sense to say that the reason there is no clarification was because one wasn’t needed, and not that Jesus expected us to figure out a metaphor that has no obvious connection to what he was trying to teach. They had understood him correctly. He was speaking literally. We really do have to eat his flesh.

It is a hard saying, but where else can we go?
How many times did Jesus need to tell it to be true?

Jesus began the discourse by saying whoever comes to him and believes in Him will not hunger or thirst. Thus the eating and drinking are symbolic of coming to Him in faith.

Jesus said to them, “I am the bread of life; he who comes to Me will not hunger, and he who believes in Me will never thirst.v.35

Jesus uses eating in exchange to represent believing . Thus is consistnet all the way thourgh His ilustration.

V. 54 he says, “He who eats My flesh and drinks My blood has eternal life, and I will raise him up on the last day.” “ Moments earlier he had said, “For this is the will of My Father, that everyone who beholds the Son and believes in Him, may have eternal life; and I Myself will raise him up on the last day.”

Notice that the results are identical in both verses: eternal life and resurrection. But although in the one we must eat and drink, in the other we behold and must believe. The results are identically the same, as are the actions to obtain them are also: eating is a substitute for believing. His figurative statements are easily understood when read in the context of the other verses in this teaching.

Noice He says in the present time He is the bread. If Jesus really wanted us to eat his real, actual body, then why didn’t the disciples around Jesus just … start canibalizing him on the spot?

Sometime Jesus does correct his disciples, but in frustration because they cannot see the symbolism behind it. In other words, they should know enough by now to interpret His words symbolically since this is the way He always spoke.
Sometimes Christ corrects the misunderstanding (especially with true followers) and sometimes he does not.

18 The Jews then said to Him, “What sign do You show us as your authority for doing these things?” 19 Jesus answered them, “Destroy this temple, and in three days I will raise it up.” 20 The Jews then said, “It took forty-six years to build this temple, and will You raise it up in three days?” 21 But He was speaking of the temple of His body. 22 So when He was raised from the dead, His disciples remembered that He said this; and they believed the Scripture and the word which Jesus had spoken.

They totaly failed to recognizse wat he was talking to them about he didnt one time correct His audience misunderstanding.Though it is true John one generation later explained it.
 
By John Salza

Most Protestants believe that the bread and wine offered by the Catholic priest in the Holy Mass are only symbols of Christ’s body and blood. They do not believe that Christians have to actually eat the flesh and drink the blood of Christ to have eternal life. They do not believe that Christ’s flesh is actual food, and His blood actual drink. Why, then, does Jesus repeatedly say in these verses that we must eat His flesh and drink His blood or we have no life in us? Why does Christ say that His flesh is food indeed, and His blood is drink indeed, if His flesh and blood really aren’t food and drink indeed? This teaching of Jesus on the Eucharist is the most profound in all of Scripture, and these verses are very problematic to the Protestant contention that the bread and wine of the Mass are just symbols.

When John 6 is prayerfully read, we see how Jesus gradually teaches the faithful about the life-giving bread from heaven that He will give to the world (through the multiplication of the loaves, the reference to the raining manna given to the Israelites, and finally to the bread that Jesus will give which is His flesh). When the Jews question Jesus about how he could possibly give them His flesh to eat, Jesus becomes more literal in His explanation. Jesus says several times that we must eat (in Greek, “phago”) His flesh to gain eternal life (which literally means “to chew”).

When the Jews further question the strangeness of His teaching, Jesus uses an even more literal verb (in Greek, “trogo”) to describe how we must eat His flesh to have eternal life (which literally means “to gnaw or crunch”). The word “trogo” is only used two other times in the New Testament (Matt. 24:38; John 13:18) and it is always used literally (physically eating). Protestants are unable to provide a single example of where “trogo” is ever used in a symbolic sense. To drive His point home, Jesus says that His flesh is real food indeed, and His blood is real drink indeed (Jesus says nothing about the bread being a symbol of His body and blood).

What is perhaps most compelling about the foregoing passages is what happens at the end of Jesus’ discourse. We know that the Jews understood Jesus as speaking literally. This is demonstrated by their question, “How can this man give us His flesh to eat?” They could not conceive of why consuming Jesus’ flesh was life-giving and how they could possibly do such a thing. We also know that Jesus responds to their question by being even more literal about eating His flesh and drinking His blood. But we learn at the end of Jesus’ discourse that many of His followers, because of the difficulty of His teaching, decided to no longer follow Him – and Jesus let them go. Then He turned to His apostles and asked them, “Will you also go away?”

Would Jesus, the Incarnate Word of God who became man to save humanity, allow his followers to leave Him if they misunderstood His teaching? Of course not, especially when the teaching regarded how they were to obtain eternal life which was at the heart of Jesus’ mission. Jesus always explained the meaning of His teachings to His disciples. Mark 4:34. Jesus did not say, “Hey, guys, come back here, you got it all wrong.” He didn’t do this because they did not have it all wrong. They understood correctly – we must eat Jesus’ flesh and drink His blood, or we have no life within us. The Protestant who contends that the Catholic offering of bread and wine in the Mass is just a symbol (and does not miraculously become the body and blood of Christ through the actions of the priest acting “in persona Christi”) must address John 6:53-58, 66-67 – why Jesus used the words He did, and why Jesus allowed His followers to leave Him if they understood Him correctly (which is the only time in Scripture where Christ allows His disciples to leave Him based upon a doctrinal teaching).

When we meditate upon this mystery with an open mind and heart, we come to believe and know that the Eucharist is the way the Father gives us His Son in the eternal covenant of love by the power of the Holy Spirit. The Eucharist is an extension of the Incarnation. If we can believe in the Incarnation (that God become a little baby), than believing that God makes Himself substantially present under the appearance of bread and wine is easy. The Church has thus taught for 2,000 years that the Eucharist is the source and summit of the Christian faith – the consummation of the sacrificed Paschal lamb, by which we are restored to God and share in His divine life. Thus, Saint Paul says, “our Paschal lamb has been sacrificed; therefore, let us celebrate the feast.” 1 Corinthians 5:7-8.
 
How many times did Jesus need to tell it to be true?

Jesus began the discourse by saying whoever comes to him and believes in Him will not hunger or thirst. Thus the eating and drinking are symbolic of coming to Him in faith.

Jesus said to them, “I am the bread of life; he who comes to Me will not hunger, and he who believes in Me will never thirst.v.35

Jesus uses eating in exchange to represent believing . Thus is consistnet all the way thourgh His ilustration.

V. 54 he says, “He who eats My flesh and drinks My blood has eternal life, and I will raise him up on the last day.” “ Moments earlier he had said, “For this is the will of My Father, that everyone who beholds the Son and believes in Him, may have eternal life; and I Myself will raise him up on the last day.”

Notice that the results are identical in both verses: eternal life and resurrection. But although in the one we must eat and drink, in the other we behold and must believe. The results are identically the same, as are the actions to obtain them are also: eating is a substitute for believing. His figurative statements are easily understood when read in the context of the other verses in this teaching.

Noice He says in the present time He is the bread. If Jesus really wanted us to eat his real, actual body, then why didn’t the disciples around Jesus just … start canibalizing him on the spot?

“Whoso eateth my flesh, and drinketh my blood, hath eternal life; and I will raise him up at the last day.”

The above verse proves that eating the Lord’s body means one already has everlasting life (present tense) and affirms that this is no mere reference to sitting down and breaking bread each week.The context has nothing to do with the last supper or physical bread. He is going to give his flesh for the life of the world. WHEN? At the cross HOW MANY TIMES? Once, not over and over on the altars

Sometime Jesus does correct his disciples, but in frustration because they cannot see the symbolism behind it. In other words, they should know enough by now to interpret His words symbolically since this is the way He always spoke.
Sometimes Christ corrects the misunderstanding (especially with true followers) and sometimes he does not.

18 The Jews then said to Him, “What sign do You show us as your authority for doing these things?” 19 Jesus answered them, “Destroy this temple, and in three days I will raise it up.” 20 The Jews then said, “It took forty-six years to build this temple, and will You raise it up in three days?” 21 But He was speaking of the temple of His body. 22 So when He was raised from the dead, His disciples remembered that He said this; and they believed the Scripture and the word which Jesus had spoken.

They totaly failed to recognizse wat he was talking to them about he didnt one time correct His audience misunderstanding.Though it is true John one generation later explained it.
 
In no way do I intend for this to be a debate. What do think of Miracles of the Eucharist?
IF the Catholic interpretation of John 6:53 was correct, then transubstantiation (change of substance) would be needed to change the bread and wine into Jesus’ literal flesh and blood. Though the Catholic church claims this ability, they do NOT have the genuine transubstantiation. How can we be sure of this? We have an actual transubstantiation in John 2 where Jesus changed the water into wine! NOTE: When the water was transubstantiated into wine, it no longer tasted like water! It now tasted like wine. Hence, the Catholic Church does NOT have a true genuine transubstantiation because the consecrated communion elements do NOT taste like raw human flesh and human blood.

In the Bible there is no such “Eucharist miracle”. The division of the Red Sea, in oder for the Israelites could pass through dry ground, was a miracle that both Jews and Egiptians watched, and both understood it happened by the power of God . Supposed this would be a “type of Catholic transubstantion miracle”: The Red sea “opened” “under the appeareance” that it remained closed and that the Israelites would have crossed it "walking " on dry ground “under the appearance” of crossing it by swiming.

Lets suppose that Christ healed a blind "under the apparence " that he cannot see, or raised a dead "under thet appareance " that they have not life. Such suppositions are absurd but that is the nature of the “Catholic transubstantion miracle”
 
How many times did Jesus need to tell it to be true?

Jesus began the discourse by saying whoever comes to him and believes in Him will not hunger or thirst. Thus the eating and drinking are symbolic of coming to Him in faith.

Jesus said to them, “I am the bread of life; he who comes to Me will not hunger, and he who believes in Me will never thirst.v.35

Jesus uses eating in exchange to represent believing . Thus is consistnet all the way thourgh His ilustration.

V. 54 he says, “He who eats My flesh and drinks My blood has eternal life, and I will raise him up on the last day.” “ Moments earlier he had said, “For this is the will of My Father, that everyone who beholds the Son and believes in Him, may have eternal life; and I Myself will raise him up on the last day.”

Notice that the results are identical in both verses: eternal life and resurrection. But although in the one we must eat and drink, in the other we behold and must believe. The results are identically the same, as are the actions to obtain them are also: eating is a substitute for believing. His figurative statements are easily understood when read in the context of the other verses in this teaching.

Noice He says in the present time He is the bread. If Jesus really wanted us to eat his real, actual body, then why didn’t the disciples around Jesus just … start canibalizing him on the spot?
You still haven’t adequately addressed the fact that there is a noticeable shift in Jesus’ language after verse 51.

The question I’d like you to answer is this: If all he was trying to get across was that people needed to believe in him, why didn’t Jesus just stop with what he said in verse 35? There’s nothing that confusing or controversial about saying, “I am the bread of life; he who comes to me shall not hunger, and he who believes in me shall never thirst.’’ That is an obvious metaphor. In fact, the Jews listening initially DID understand his metaphor. Notice, they don’t ask ''Why does he call himself bread?" Instead, they are offended by the fact that he said he came down from heaven. That’s what is confusing them. Not that he said anyone who believes in him will not hunger. It’s only after he says the bread they must eat IS his flesh that things start going downhill.

So why did he start muddying the waters by talking about eating his flesh and drinking his blood like that? His point was pretty clearly made in verse 35, what purpose did it serve to use that graphic language?

The Catholic answer would be that Jesus was outlining the steps of discipleship. Faith comes before the Eucharist. If we don’t believe in Christ, then our reception of the Eucharist is in vain. In fact, it will condemn us. (see 1 Cor 11:27-29) We must believe before we can receive. It’s not either faith or the Eucharist. It’s both.

As far as why the apostles didn’t start cannibalizing Jesus on the spot, this is a red herring. Not even Catholics believe that Jesus was speaking in a crass literalist way like that. The apostles might not have known HOW Jesus was going to give us his flesh to eat (that would be revealed later) but they would have known enough not to cannibalize him. It doesn’t follow though that Jesus was obviously only saying that they just needed to believe. That doesn’t fit with the text.
Sometimes Christ corrects the misunderstanding (especially with true followers) and sometimes he does not. In other words, they should know enough by now to interpret His words symbolically since this is the way He always spoke.
18 The Jews then said to Him, “What sign do You show us as your authority for doing these things?” 19 Jesus answered them, “Destroy this temple, and in three days I will raise it up.” 20 The Jews then said, “It took forty-six years to build this temple, and will You raise it up in three days?” 21 But He was speaking of the temple of His body. 22 So when He was raised from the dead, His disciples remembered that He said this; and they believed the Scripture and the word which Jesus had spoken.
They totaly failed to recognizse wat he was talking to them about he didnt one time correct His audience misunderstanding.Though it is true John one generation later explained it.
But don’t you find it significant that John DOESN’T offer an explanation here? Why wouldn’t he? This is the biggest confusion over Jesus’ words recorded in the Gospels. Thousands of people stopped following Him. Many of his disciples lost faith. One of the TWELVE even lost faith. And John had nothing to say about it? Why not? He was there. He would have known first hand how confusing and scandalous Jesus’ words were. He had to have known his readers would have been just as easily confused. It would have been easy just to add a note ‘‘but they misunderstood him’’ or something to that effect.

But instead all we have is a matter of fact statement. It’s as if John wants us to take Jesus at his word.
 
IF the Catholic interpretation of John 6:53 was correct, then transubstantiation (change of substance) would be needed to change the bread and wine into Jesus’ literal flesh and blood. Though the Catholic church claims this ability, they do NOT have the genuine transubstantiation. How can we be sure of this? We have an actual transubstantiation in John 2 where Jesus changed the water into wine! NOTE: When the water was transubstantiated into wine, it no longer tasted like water! It now tasted like wine. Hence, the Catholic Church does NOT have a true genuine transubstantiation because the consecrated communion elements do NOT taste like raw human flesh and human blood.
You misunderstand what transubstantiation is. It’s not like the Miracle at Cana. (though it is similar.)

Transubstantiation means the SUBSTANCE (what a thing is) is transformed, while the ACCIDENTS (the outward appearance, taste, size, color etc…) remain. The very definition of it assumes that the bread still looks like bread. That can hardly disprove it. That’s like saying the fact the earth doesn’t look like it’s moving proves heliocentrism is false. Except heliocentrism already takes that fact into consideration. Same thing with transubstantiation.
In the Bible there is no such “Eucharist miracle”. The division of the Red Sea, in oder for the Israelites could pass through dry ground, was a miracle that both Jews and Egiptians watched, and both understood it happened by the power of God . Supposed this would be a “type of Catholic transubstantion miracle”: The Red sea “opened” “under the appeareance” that it remained closed and that the Israelites would have crossed it "walking " on dry ground “under the appearance” of crossing it by swiming.
Lets suppose that Christ healed a blind "under the apparence " that he cannot see, or raised a dead "under thet appareance " that they have not life. Such suppositions are absurd but that is the nature of the “Catholic transubstantion miracle”
What if there was a miracle where Jesus showed himself ‘‘under the appearance’’ of something he wasn’t? That would be like transubstantiation right? We believe that though it looks like bread, it really isn’t. It’s actually Jesus, just under a different form.

So if I could show you an example of Jesus appearing in another form to someone, would you be more open to the Catholic teaching? How about Mark 16:12?

*12 After this he appeared in another form to two of them, as they were walking into the country. *

Interesting. Even though it didn’t look like Jesus, it was. Sounds a lot like the Catholic understanding of the Eucharist to me.
 
Catholics like you say, “we have to look at the reaction of the people to know what the teaching means” , while Christians say “we have to analize the teaching itself to know what the teaching means”. Well bud I dont agree with you hermenutical approach, nevetheless I will talk with you in your terms.
I find it slightly ironic that you make such a distinction between the Catholic understanding of the Eucharist and the Christian understanding, when the historic Christian understanding WAS the Catholic understanding for 1500 years. The vast majority of Christians who have ever lived have believed in the Real Presence. All the apostolic churches believe in it. Even some protestants do.

Given all that, it seems odd for me to say that the ‘‘Christian’’ position is the one you hold to. Don’t you think it might be more likely that’s it’s your interpretation that is the innovative one, rather than the one that has been around for two thousand years?

Just something to consider.
 
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