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adf417
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Just wondering if there is anyone who disagrees that the canon of the Catholic church has been the same since the 4th century?
Peace!!!
Peace!!!
en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Books_of_the_Bible#TableJust wondering if there is anyone who disagrees that the canon of the Catholic church has been the same since the 4th century?
Peace!!!
Excellent article and 100% accurate
Sorry I was not clear. I assumed this sub forum would not need the clarification. My bad!Doesn’t ‘the Catholic canon’ vary immensely.
A knanaya catholic, an ethiopian catholic and a ruthenian catholic all would have different canons than one another. And all of them would have a different canon than latin rite catholics. Right isn’t it? That’s what I always thougth.
Are these “canons” perhaps liturgical texts for the Mass? The Catholic Church has many Mass rites, and in the Mass there is the text of the “canon,” the official set text surrounding the Consecration. These canons would be worded differently in the different Mass rites. Is this what you mean, Young Ludovicus, by the knanaya Catholic canon and ethiopian canon, etc?Doesn’t ‘the Catholic canon’ vary immensely.
A knanaya catholic, an ethiopian catholic and a ruthenian catholic all would have different canons than one another. And all of them would have a different canon than latin rite catholics. Right isn’t it? That’s what I always thougth.
Which Bible catholics use depends on their rite. A Ethiopian Catholic has quite a few more books in their Bible. A Ruthenian Catholic also has a different Bible. Most of the catholics are latin rite and thus have the same bibles.Are these “canons” perhaps liturgical texts for the Mass? The Catholic Church has many Mass rites, and in the Mass there is the text of the “canon,” the official set text surrounding the Consecration. These canons would be worded differently in the different Mass rites. Is this what you mean, Young Ludovicus, by the knanaya Catholic canon and ethiopian canon, etc?
But it seems to me that the OP asks, do we all agree that, for the Catholic Church, the canon (of scripture) is the same today as it was in the 4th Century. And my answer to that would be yes, the list of NT scriptural texts officially considered divinely inspired is the same list as the list first enumerated and repeated in the 4th century.
Sorry I was not clear. I assumed this sub forum would not need the clarification. My bad!
I don’t know about “immensely” but yes. So maybe I should clarify - is there anyone who disagrees that the canonof the Catholic church has been the same since their inceptions?
Peace!!!
(www.orthodoxwiki.org/septuagint)Thus, when the Apostles quote the Jewish Scripture in their own writings, the overwhelmingly dominant source for their wording comes directly from the Septuagint (LXX). Given that the spread of the Gospel was most successful among the Gentiles and Hellenistic Jews, it made sense that the LXX would be the Bible for the early Church.
but orthodoxwiki says of the canon:the Greek Septuagint; the Latin Church, the Vulgate
It may help to notice that the Vulgate is the Septuagint in Latin. The Catholic Church translation into what was then the popular or vulgar language, ie Latin, was from the Greek Septuagint, and is known as the Vulgate; and the Catholic Church’s subsequent translations were also of the Septuagint. You can see by checking whether 1 Maccabees is in the bible: in the Catholic OT it always is, as it has always been because that’s the way it is in the Septuagint; but Maccabees is missing from the Protestant canon because Protestantism abandoned the Septuagint.The differences with Rome are fairly small and have never been a subject of much contention between the Orthodox and that communion. The canonical lists are essentially the same in content
The Vulgate isn’t necessarily a 1:1 copy of the Septuagint into Latin.The Septuagint is the proper canon.
(www.orthodoxwiki.org/septuagint)
you say that the Greek rely on the Septuagint while the Catholic Church relies on the Vulgate:
but orthodoxwiki says of the canon:
It may help to notice that the Vulgate is the Septuagint in Latin. The Catholic Church translation into what was then the popular or vulgar language, ie Latin, was from the Greek Septuagint, and is known as the Vulgate; and the Catholic Church’s subsequent translations were also of the Septuagint. You can see by checking whether 1 Maccabees is in the bible: in the Catholic OT it always is, as it has always been because that’s the way it is in the Septuagint; but Maccabees is missing from the Protestant canon because Protestantism abandoned the Septuagint.
…is there anyone who disagrees that the canonof the Catholic church has been the same since their inceptions
I did not state “the Orthodox have…” I stated that the “Greek/Slavic/Byzantine Churches” have the Septuagint as the standard. The Latin Church has the Vulgate as standard. The Syriac Churches the Peshitto, etc.somebody said, in a list purporting to show many canons of the bible, that the Orthodox had the Septuagint while the Catholics had the Vulgate–I thought it important to speak to this: the Vulgate IS the Septuagint but in Latin, the vulgar or popular tongue of the regular folks, those who could read, at the time. Thus, Vulgate. So there were not, not at least on those grounds, two different canons for East and West.