Thanks for all your help.
My response to that response would be to ask the proponent to back it up from Scripture and Tradition. Somebody has already pointed out Hebrews 9:27 as a refutation of this theory.
This only proves that there will be a judgement after death, which the orthodox do not deny. It is merely that this judgement is not the full judgement that will entail with the last judgement, and will not give judgement in full - only a “foretaste”.
Here are some quotes about the views of the Church fathers on this issue: (sorry, wikipedia is not exactly scholarly, but it is all I could find in a hurry)
From Wikipedia:
en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Particular_judgement#Old_Testament_and_Apocrypha
"Tertullian (c. 200) wrote that, even before final judgment, a soul “undergoes punishment and consolation in Hades in the interval, while it awaits its alternative of judgment, in a certain anticipation either of gloom or of glory”
“Some early Fathers, apparently including Justin, Irenaeus, Tertullian and Clement of Alexandria, believed that, in general, the saved did not enter heaven until Judgment Day, and during the interval between death and the resurrection they dwell happily in a delightful abode, awaiting their final glorification. Exceptions were admitted for the martyrs and some other classes of saints, who were admitted at once to the supreme joys of heaven”
From:
en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Afterlife#Christianity
“Hippolytus of Rome pictures Hades as a place where the righteous dead, awaiting in the bosom of Abraham their resurrection, rejoice at their future prospect, while the unrighteous are tormented at the sight of the “lake of unquenchable fire” into which they are destined to be cast.”
From what I understand, the reason that we cannot experience our judgement full because the resurrection of the dead has not taken place, and so body and soul are not united, which is why the experience is only a partial “foretaste”. It is also the reason why we die - our soul may be clean, but it is not united with a spiritual, immortal body.
This seems to suggest that at least
some of the early Church Fathers viewed the afterlife differently to how medieval and modern Catholicism does. If there is no consensus on the issue, then why does the Catholic Church dogmatically expound a certain viewpoint?