Catholic interpretation of 1 Cor 4:6?

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PoorKnight

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Ok I’ve got a local 1 hour Protestant radio show. (with heavy Anti-Catholic leanings, though I’m not sure the host knows it, he just spouts it). Oh he’s Ex-Catholic so he “knows” Catholicism…

I try to get involved (responding to the New Evangelism) and correct the gross mis-representations (and lies) about the Catholic Church.

I’ve corrected them several times on interpretation of 2 Tim 3:16 “all Scripture is profitable for…” so much that he’s changed his verse to support it. Today he pulled out 1 Cor 4:6 “…not to go beyond what is written…” partial verse. The whole verse is…

“I have applied these things to myself and Apollos for your benefit, brothers, so that you may learn from us not to go beyond what is written, so that none of you will be inflated with pride in favor of one person over against another.”

Now I’ve learned that the words “to go” are not in the Greek but are added for clarity. I’ve also gathered from searching here, that to use it to support Sola Scriptora is out of context. That the context is in correcting Prideful behavior - as supported by Paul’s several “as it is written” phrases in the preceeding chapters.

But I’d like some more evaluation of that verse. If someone(people) could please give some more annalysis of that verse in context and how it relates - or doesn’t - to Sola Scriptura.

Thank you and God Bless you in the Name of the Father, the Son and the Holy Spirit.

(Removed as per Banned Topics regarding board swarm calls)
 
Karl Keating covers this in “Catholicism and Fundamentalism”.

I can’t tell you (wihtout going to the books and re-reading) exactly the context. But, if the radio show host takes that verse literally, he must necessarily reject the entire NT. What was written at that time and in-hand was the OT.

He must also explain how he reconciles that verse with 1 Cor 11:2, 2 Thes 2:15 and 2 Thes 3:6. If we are only to abide by what is written, how come we are told to hold fast to traditions and shun those who reject them? Those words are in the Bible that he professes as his sole rule of Faith…he can’t ignore them.
 
CONTEXT.

Paul, at this point, is rebuking the Corinthians for prideful arrogance that was causing division among them. He was not instructing about Scriptural authority. Indeed, he may have been referencing earlier passages in the very letter he was writing.

From the NAB footnotes:
the words “to go” are not in the Greek, but have here been added as the minimum necessary to elicit sense from this difficult passage. It probably means that the Corinthians should avoid the false wisdom of vain speculation, contenting themselves with Paul’s proclamation of the cross, which is the fulfillment of God’s promises in the Old Testament (what is written)

So, in the context of 1 Corinthians, if Paul here is actually referencing Scripture at all, “what is written” likely only includes the Septuagint (aka the 46 books in the Catholic OT).

From Haydock:
against the admonitions given in the holy Scriptures of being humble: or against what I have now written to you, that we must strive for nothing, but to be the faithful ministers of God, and not seek the esteem of men.

From Barnes’ Notes on the Bible (non-catholic resource):
Above that which is written - Probably referring to what he had said in 1 Corinthians 3:5-9, 1 Corinthians 3:21; 1 Corinthians 4:1. Or it may refer to the general strain of Scripture requiring the children of God to be modest and humble.

From Vincent’s Word Studies (non-Catholic resource):
The article the introduces a proverbial expression. The impersonal it is written is commonly used of Old-Testament references.
(again, this would be the Septuagint)
 
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Read the WHOLE verse:

“I have applied these things to myself and Apollos for your benefit, brothers, so that you may learn from us not to go beyond what is written, so that none of you will be inflated with pride in favor of one person over against another.”
1 Cor 4:6 (NAB)

By omitting the last part of the verse, he ignores its intent entirely. Since he is using the verse to justify his position (inflating his pride), he quotes it to his own condemnation.
 
I skimmed you forum and I must say, wow. Took me back to my high school (A conservative Baptist one). I will say this: It is doubtful that you’ll be able to change anyone’s mind, just remember that. That said, I fully support what you’re doing. Oddly enough, I’m usually the main defender of the Catholic church among my friends (and I’m a Protestant :P)
 
Here is the commentary from the Ignatius Bible study (as other’s have said, context is very important to the verse):
“Paul cautions believers to stay within the limits of personal humility defined by the Scriptures. He is referring specifically to the string of OT warnings about boasting quoted earlier in the letter (1:19, 31; 3:19-20). Paul’s purpose here is to halt the damaging effects of arrogance in Corinth, as indicated by the clarification that follows. Interpretations of this verse that suggest Paul is restricting the basis for Christian doctrine and morals to what is explicitly set forth in the books of the Bible (sola Scriptura) are misleading and untenable. Nothing in the context points to such a broad concern, and in any case Paul insists elsewhere that even the inspired preaching of the apostles is on par with the written word of God (1 Thess 2:13; 2 Thess 2:15; 3:6)”
Click to expand...
I don’t think I could say it any better than that…
 
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