Catholic Nuns in Bosnia being given contraceptives

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I never said they would prevent rape. They would repel an unjust aggressor which would be sperm. That is why “contraceptives” may be used after a rape. Not abortifacients, but contraceptives if conception has not occurred. As contraception is intrinsically evil and may never be done their use after rape is not contraception, but repelling an unjust agreesor.
Where did you find this information? Where is sperm referred to as an unjust aggressor?
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That is the point, the intention is not to contracept. Why does the USCCB say such techniques may be used post rape?
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When you take a pill to prevent a baby from being made… you are contracepting.

What other intention would the nuns presumably be using it for that is supposed to help fight against rape?!? How would the BCP help someone who has been raped? How would it help someone who might be raped? Am I missing something?
 
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I never said they would prevent rape. They would repel an unjust aggressor which would be sperm. That is why “contraceptives” may be used after a rape. Not abortifacients, but contraceptives if conception has not occurred. As contraception is intrinsically evil and may never be done their use after rape is not contraception, but repelling an unjust agreesor.
Where did you find this information? Where is sperm referred to as an unjust aggressor?
 
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frogman80:
Where did you find this information? Where is sperm referred to as an unjust aggressor?
In accord with the Ethical and Religious Directives for Catholic Health Care Services (no. 36)…
The Directives state, “A woman who has been raped may defend herself against a conception resulting from sexual assault. If, after appropriate testing, there is no evidence that conception has occurred already, she may be treated with medication that would prevent ovulation, sperm capacitation, or fertilization. It is not permissible, however, to initiate or to recommend treatments that have as their purpose or direct effect the removal, destruction, or interference with the implantation of a fertilized ovum.”(no. 36) The woman who is a victim of rape has the moral right to prevent the pregnancy for the following reasons: First, the rapist (including his sperm) is an unjust aggressor who has violated the woman’s dignity. Second, rape is an act of force and violence, unlike the conjugal love in marriage whereby both spouses give freely of themselves in an act of unitive and procreative love. Third, the woman is not responsible for the action, and thereby has the right to prevent the pregnancy. (Please note that for these three reasons, this guidance does not violate the Church’ s teaching regarding contraception as expressed in Humanae Vitae, which, because of the free-giving between spouses, stated, "Each and every marriage act must remain open to the transmission of life (no. 11).)
When you take a pill to prevent a baby from being made… you are contracepting.
We must distinguish between the theological definition of contraception and the medical term.
What other intention would the nuns presumably be using it for that is supposed to help fight against rape?!? How would the BCP help someone who has been raped? How would it help someone who might be raped? Am I missing something?
I am not giving Church teaching, only my reasoning based on Church teaching. I am sure one better informed will correct me if I am wrong.
 
Roman_Army said:
Because they’re wrong. The intention is to contracept if an incident arises. Also, issuing contraceptives to nuns causes scandal. People would start claiming that nuns have contraceptives because they are secretly having sex and that the Church knows it and even issues them contraceptives.

I am not in favor of any of this. I am trying to give an argument that would be in agrement with Church teaching. Ovulation suppressing meds are licit for victims. I will find the cite for you. That such things are allowed would* seem* to contradict the understanding that “contraception” is intrinsically evil. It seems to me we must be very specific as to how the Church defines “contraception”.
The woman who is a victim of rape has the moral right to prevent the pregnancy for the following reasons: First, the rapist (including his sperm) is an unjust aggressor who has violated the woman’s dignity. Second, rape is an act of force and violence, unlike the conjugal love in marriage whereby both spouses give freely of themselves in an act of unitive and procreative love. Third, the woman is not responsible for the action, and thereby has the right to prevent the pregnancy. (Please note that for these three reasons, this guidance does not violate the Church’ s teaching regarding contraception as expressed in Humanae Vitae, which, because of the free-giving between spouses, stated, "Each and every marriage act must remain open to the transmission of life (no. 11).)catholicherald.com/saunders/02ws/ws020808.htm
 
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Understood. However, I’m still unsure. A document approved by the Pope would help.
 
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We must distinguish between the theological definition of contraception and the medical term.
Can you be more specific on this…
Medical term =
Theological definition =

Thank you 🙂
 
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We must distinguish between the theological definition of contraception and the medical term.
Can you expand a bit on how they are different…
Theological definition =
Medical term =

Thank you 🙂
 
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