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**The gist of my post: **There are certain New Testament passages which quote the Old Testament in a way which cannot be reconciled with the Masoretic Text. But it seems all (or almost all?) Catholic Old Testaments today are translated from the Masoretic Text. Is it permissable to say that the Masoretic Text was not the Bible employed by the Apostles? What is the Church’s position on using the Septuagint instead?
Consider Acts 15:17 and Amos 9:12. This passage is fascinating, because the Apostle James is quoting Amos, but in most translations, the quote James gives is different from the wording in that translation’s rendering of the relevant verse in Amos. The reason for this difference is that James was not using the Masoretic Text, while most translations of Amos are from the Masoretic Text.
The fact that Acts 15:17 talks about the remnant of men, while Amos 9:12 talks about the remnant of EDOM implies that the text employed by James was ultimately rooted in a manuscript which had alef-dalet-mem (which could be interpreted as Adam or Edom), while the Masoretic Text has alef-dalet-VAV-mem, which leaves no room for anything other than Edom.
I found further insight when I looked at how the Salkinson-Ginsburg Hebrew translation of the NT rendered Acts 15:17. Usually the Salkinson-Ginsburg translation just throws the Masoretic Text in when translating a NT verses which quote the OT. But in the case of Acts 15:17, the Salkinson-Ginsburg translation does not match the Masoretic Text. This is because the translators of the Salkinson-Ginsburg NT knew that Acts 15:17 could not be reconciled with the Masoretic Text, and thus tried to reconstruct what the text employed by James probably looked like.
The Salkinson-Ginsburg reconstruction lacks a vav in ADM (while the Masoretic Text has that vav), and so too, instead of yeereshoo (yod-yod-reysh-shin-vav in the Masoretic Text), they have yidreshoo (i.e. instead of a yod-reysh-shin root, they imagine a dalet-reysh-shin root). This struck me as a very plausible explanation (i.e. the manuscript employed by James differed from the Masoretic Text in that it had a dalet where the Masoretic Text has a second yod).
Also, the Septuagint translation of Amos 9:12 matches up with the way Acts 15:17 renders Amos 9:12. Even though they are almost the same, they are not identical. Perhaps this is not the case of the NT quoting the Septuagint, but rather agreeing with it, and thus we may have two different pieces of independent attestation to the existence of a variant text.
For more, consider the NIV rendering of Deuteronomy 32:8. While the Masoretic Text forces a translation that employs the phrase “sons of Israel,” both the Septuagint and the versions of Deuteronomy found at Qumran have a variant text, instead forcing the translation “sons of God”. Thankfully, the footnote to Deuteronomy 32:8 in the NIV notes this!
You can see an analogous example in Deuteronomy 32:43. It is worth noting that Hebrews 1:6 is quoting Deuteronomy 32:43, yet that quoted text cannot be found in the Masoretic Text. Both the Septuagint and the versions of Deuteronomy found at Qumran testify to a variant textual tradition different from the Masoretic Text. Again, the footnotes in the NIV acknowledge such. It seems the Apostle Paul (or whomever the author of Hebrews was) employed a different text from the Masoretic Text.
For one final example, compare Luke 3:35-36 with Genesis 10:24 and/or Genesis 11:13. In Luke’s genealogy of Jesus, he includes the name Cainan in between the name Shelah and Arphaxad, when the Masoretic Text did not recognize any such generation. Some might wonder how Luke could make such a blunder. I think the problem is not that Luke was wrong, but rather that modern translations are performed from the Masoretic Text, and the Masoretic Text is where the error is. For example, the Septuagint rendering of Genesis 10:24 and Genesis 11:13 has the name Cainain as well.
In other words, the Septuagint was translated from a Hebrew text of Genesis which was different from the Masoretic Text. So too, the version of Genesis employed by Luke probably agreed with the Septuagint and disagreed with the Masoretic Text (hence the discrepancy that exists when comparing Luke to a version of Genesis translated from the Masoretic Text, but which does not exist when comparing Luke to the Septuagint).
The Hebrew Bible of Judaism, i.e. the Masoretic Text (which all Protestant translations of the OT and almost all Catholic translations of the OT are translated from), is not identical to the scriptures employed by the Apostles.
It is precisely for this reason that I wonder if we, as Christians, should side with the Septuagint as our Old Testament (as many ancient Christians did, and almost all Orthodox Christians do to this day).
**The gist of my post: **There are certain New Testament passages which quote the Old Testament in a way which cannot be reconciled with the Masoretic Text. But it seems all (or almost all?) Catholic Old Testaments today are translated from the Masoretic Text. Is it permissable to say that the Masoretic Text was not the Bible employed by the Apostles? What is the Church’s position on using the Septuagint instead?
Consider Acts 15:17 and Amos 9:12. This passage is fascinating, because the Apostle James is quoting Amos, but in most translations, the quote James gives is different from the wording in that translation’s rendering of the relevant verse in Amos. The reason for this difference is that James was not using the Masoretic Text, while most translations of Amos are from the Masoretic Text.
The fact that Acts 15:17 talks about the remnant of men, while Amos 9:12 talks about the remnant of EDOM implies that the text employed by James was ultimately rooted in a manuscript which had alef-dalet-mem (which could be interpreted as Adam or Edom), while the Masoretic Text has alef-dalet-VAV-mem, which leaves no room for anything other than Edom.
I found further insight when I looked at how the Salkinson-Ginsburg Hebrew translation of the NT rendered Acts 15:17. Usually the Salkinson-Ginsburg translation just throws the Masoretic Text in when translating a NT verses which quote the OT. But in the case of Acts 15:17, the Salkinson-Ginsburg translation does not match the Masoretic Text. This is because the translators of the Salkinson-Ginsburg NT knew that Acts 15:17 could not be reconciled with the Masoretic Text, and thus tried to reconstruct what the text employed by James probably looked like.
The Salkinson-Ginsburg reconstruction lacks a vav in ADM (while the Masoretic Text has that vav), and so too, instead of yeereshoo (yod-yod-reysh-shin-vav in the Masoretic Text), they have yidreshoo (i.e. instead of a yod-reysh-shin root, they imagine a dalet-reysh-shin root). This struck me as a very plausible explanation (i.e. the manuscript employed by James differed from the Masoretic Text in that it had a dalet where the Masoretic Text has a second yod).
Also, the Septuagint translation of Amos 9:12 matches up with the way Acts 15:17 renders Amos 9:12. Even though they are almost the same, they are not identical. Perhaps this is not the case of the NT quoting the Septuagint, but rather agreeing with it, and thus we may have two different pieces of independent attestation to the existence of a variant text.
For more, consider the NIV rendering of Deuteronomy 32:8. While the Masoretic Text forces a translation that employs the phrase “sons of Israel,” both the Septuagint and the versions of Deuteronomy found at Qumran have a variant text, instead forcing the translation “sons of God”. Thankfully, the footnote to Deuteronomy 32:8 in the NIV notes this!
You can see an analogous example in Deuteronomy 32:43. It is worth noting that Hebrews 1:6 is quoting Deuteronomy 32:43, yet that quoted text cannot be found in the Masoretic Text. Both the Septuagint and the versions of Deuteronomy found at Qumran testify to a variant textual tradition different from the Masoretic Text. Again, the footnotes in the NIV acknowledge such. It seems the Apostle Paul (or whomever the author of Hebrews was) employed a different text from the Masoretic Text.
For one final example, compare Luke 3:35-36 with Genesis 10:24 and/or Genesis 11:13. In Luke’s genealogy of Jesus, he includes the name Cainan in between the name Shelah and Arphaxad, when the Masoretic Text did not recognize any such generation. Some might wonder how Luke could make such a blunder. I think the problem is not that Luke was wrong, but rather that modern translations are performed from the Masoretic Text, and the Masoretic Text is where the error is. For example, the Septuagint rendering of Genesis 10:24 and Genesis 11:13 has the name Cainain as well.
In other words, the Septuagint was translated from a Hebrew text of Genesis which was different from the Masoretic Text. So too, the version of Genesis employed by Luke probably agreed with the Septuagint and disagreed with the Masoretic Text (hence the discrepancy that exists when comparing Luke to a version of Genesis translated from the Masoretic Text, but which does not exist when comparing Luke to the Septuagint).
The Hebrew Bible of Judaism, i.e. the Masoretic Text (which all Protestant translations of the OT and almost all Catholic translations of the OT are translated from), is not identical to the scriptures employed by the Apostles.
It is precisely for this reason that I wonder if we, as Christians, should side with the Septuagint as our Old Testament (as many ancient Christians did, and almost all Orthodox Christians do to this day).