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frjohnmorris
Guest
You are reading back into history concepts that did not exist at that time. There was no concept that the Pope had the authority to issue doctrinal decisions “ex cathedra” during the time of the ancient undivided Church. To have ecumenical authority any decree of the Bishop of Rome had to be studied and ratified by an Ecumenical Council as the Council of Chalcedon studied and ratified the Tome of Leo. The decree of the 1st Vatican Council claims unconditionally that “see of St. Peter always remains unblemished by any error…” The case of Pope Honorius I shows that the the see of St. Peter has not been umblemishd by any error. He was condemned for heresy by the 6th Ecumenical Council. The 5th Ecumenical Council forced Pope Vigilius to accept its decisions. The decree of the 1st Vatican Council claims that the Popes have always called Ecumenical Councils That also is not true, the Emperors called the first 7 Ecumenical Councils. You cannot reconcile the 1st Vatican Council with the practices of the ancient undivided Church. It is not possible without distorting the historical record.Fr. John-
You keep asserting that Honorius taught heresy and that this disproves papal infallibility.
Catholics counter no, not unless Honorius was making an ex cathedra statement. The criteria for infallible statements can be applied retroactively to determine whether a pope in years past did make an infallible pronouncement. Catholics argue that Honorius did not make such a pronouncement based upon the following evidence:
Therefore, in face of all this it cannot be asserted that an ex cathedra statement was made, or that that Council thought that such a definition had been pronounced.
- In no less than four places in his letters, he rejects all idea of defining doctrine in favour of one side or the other:
(a) “We must not wrest what they say into Church dogmas”;
(b) “We must not define either one or two operations”;
(c) “We leave the matter to grammarians”;
(d) “We must not, defining, pronounce one or two operations.”- Honorius imposed no obligations upon the faithful to hold any of the doctrinal opinions expressed in his letter: the customary grave penalties for refusing to assent to the doctrine taught, receive no mention: he makes no reference to the use of Petrine authority nor to the traditional teaching of the Church. In other words, Honorius did not claim to be speaking with the mouth of Peter nor to be exercising that Apostle’s privilege of infallibility.
Now, these things are a matter of objective, historical fact. Since you are an objective historian with a PhD in the field, it must be possible for you to evaluate whether these things are true or not.
So, did Honorius’ letters include the disclaimers listed above or not?
If he did include such obvious qualifiers, how can you continue to insist that he WAS teaching formally teaching error when Honorius went to such lengths to clarify otherwise?
Fr. John