P
PJD1987
Guest
Hey everyone,
Firstly, I tried to pick the most applicable thread to post this in, and I settled on Moral Theology, but if you think there is a better place for it, please feel free to redirect me.
I am taking a course this semester called Catholic Sexual Ethics and its raising an issue that I thought I’d pose to you fine people. We just read St. Augustine’s “On the Good of Marriage” along with excerpts from St. Thomas Aquinas Summa Theologica and Summa Contra Gentiles. What we learned from this is that St. Augustine believed that sex was evil and the Lord used pro-creation to bring a good out of an evil. Also, he believed that sex even within the marriage was sinful if not done specifically to bring a child into the world.
I suppose the issue is mostly with St. Augustine in that, the way this is all being presented is that this was the teaching of the Church, that sex was evil even within marriage if not for the purpose of procreation and more recently (20th Century) the Church is changing its tone and teaching. The problem here in my mind is that, the Church does NOT change doctrine or dogma, that’s why its doctrine and dogma, and if we have to backtrack and change our beliefs it means that the Holy Spirit misled us and did not guide us into all Truth, which necessarily shakes the foundation of our entire faith.
My position is that just because St. Augustine or anyone else, even a Pope, may have said it, its never been a defined infallible doctrine or dogma that Catholics must believe this. I also understand that our beliefs and understanding of truths does evolve as we naturally gain more knowledge on subjects, but when does an evolution of teaching become an outright change of teaching? I, unfortunately, am not well versed enough on the Church’s teaching on the matter to bring this up as I may be wrong. However, if I am wrong, and the Church did change its beliefs, doesn’t that undermine the ENTIRE concept of the Holy Spirit leading us into all Truth, and what does that mean for our faith.
As a side note, the professor has said that she is fascinated on how these beleifs “change” over time and that is what her entire work is devoted to, maybe its just semantics, but it seems “off” to me. Additionally, somewhat unrelated, she referred in class yesterday to the unborn as a “fetus” which just irked me.
I know that’s a whole lot, but your thoughts would be greatly appreciated. Thank you.
God bless,
Paul
Firstly, I tried to pick the most applicable thread to post this in, and I settled on Moral Theology, but if you think there is a better place for it, please feel free to redirect me.
I am taking a course this semester called Catholic Sexual Ethics and its raising an issue that I thought I’d pose to you fine people. We just read St. Augustine’s “On the Good of Marriage” along with excerpts from St. Thomas Aquinas Summa Theologica and Summa Contra Gentiles. What we learned from this is that St. Augustine believed that sex was evil and the Lord used pro-creation to bring a good out of an evil. Also, he believed that sex even within the marriage was sinful if not done specifically to bring a child into the world.
I suppose the issue is mostly with St. Augustine in that, the way this is all being presented is that this was the teaching of the Church, that sex was evil even within marriage if not for the purpose of procreation and more recently (20th Century) the Church is changing its tone and teaching. The problem here in my mind is that, the Church does NOT change doctrine or dogma, that’s why its doctrine and dogma, and if we have to backtrack and change our beliefs it means that the Holy Spirit misled us and did not guide us into all Truth, which necessarily shakes the foundation of our entire faith.
My position is that just because St. Augustine or anyone else, even a Pope, may have said it, its never been a defined infallible doctrine or dogma that Catholics must believe this. I also understand that our beliefs and understanding of truths does evolve as we naturally gain more knowledge on subjects, but when does an evolution of teaching become an outright change of teaching? I, unfortunately, am not well versed enough on the Church’s teaching on the matter to bring this up as I may be wrong. However, if I am wrong, and the Church did change its beliefs, doesn’t that undermine the ENTIRE concept of the Holy Spirit leading us into all Truth, and what does that mean for our faith.
As a side note, the professor has said that she is fascinated on how these beleifs “change” over time and that is what her entire work is devoted to, maybe its just semantics, but it seems “off” to me. Additionally, somewhat unrelated, she referred in class yesterday to the unborn as a “fetus” which just irked me.
I know that’s a whole lot, but your thoughts would be greatly appreciated. Thank you.
God bless,
Paul