P
Porknpie
Guest
Cat, where did the interpretation of scripture first begin that the word “Spirit” means “Symbolic” or “Metaphorical”? The Church that approved John as scripture never had this understanding. This is man-made development that did not occur until the reformation. Who should one believe, one of the 16th century reformers, a local bible Church Pastor or St Ignatius of Antioch who was a disciple of St. John, the Apostle…taught by Christ himself.Thanks for the question. Of course I believe all that is written in John 6. Speaking of His flesh and His blood, the Lord Jesus Christ is speaking metaphorically. He states as much in verse 63: It is the Spirit that giveth life; the flesh profited nothing. The words that I speak unto you, they are spirit, and they are life
“They abstain from the Eucharist and from prayer, because they confess not the Eucharist to be the flesh of our Saviour Jesus Christ, which suffered for our sins, and which the Father, of His goodness, raised up again.” Ignatius of Antioch, Epistle to Smyrnaeans, 7,1 (c. A.D. 110).
Justin Martyr even comments on this apostolic faith…believing in the real presence
"For not as common bread and common drink do we receive these; but in like manner as Jesus Christ our Saviour, having been made flesh and blood for our salvation, so likewise have we been taught that the food which is blessed by the prayer of His word, and from which our blood and flesh by transmutation are nourished, is the flesh and blood of that Jesus who was made flesh." Justin Martyr, First Apology, 66 (c. A.D. 110-165).
Cat, I apologize if I came of as ridiculing. That was not my intention and meaning. Your supposition that the bible interprets itself is a false one. It’s a man-made doctrine and the existence of 40,000 protestant denominations is proof on it’s own that it doesn’t work. Rather, the bible is interpreted by the Church Christ established, the pillar and bulwark of truth, based on the apostolic faith that was handed down.You didn’t answer any of my questions. I have given you adequate proof that the Bible {cap. “B”] interprets itself. Your “straw dummy” question is ridicules
- This apostolic faith is how you can trust that the bible you are holding is the inspired and inerrant written Word of God…the canon determined infallibly by the Catholic Church
- This same apostolic faith & Catholic Church has taught that Eucharist is not symbolic, rather is the actual resurrected body and blood of our Lord.
No word Trinity but you implicitly trust the Catholic Church to have determined its doctrinal nature…just like you trust the Catholic Church to have determined the bible you own is the Word of God.You show me the verse in the Bible that uses the word “trinity” or “bride of Christ”.
What did Christ say?Can you tell me in two sentences the gospel by which a person is saved in this dispensation of the grace of God?.
QC
53 So Jesus said to them, “Truly, truly, I say to you, unless you eat the flesh of the Son of man and drink his blood, you have no life in you; 54 he who eats my flesh and drinks my blood has eternal life, and I will raise him up at the last day. 55 For my flesh is food indeed, and my blood is drink indeed. 56** He who eats my flesh and drinks my blood abides in me, and I in him**.
You still need to find someone in the early Church that believed that the Eucharist was symbolic. If Christ taught his disciples without error and they taught their descendents the same, it should be pretty evident that the Church believed in a symbolic meal.
You can look and read … you will not find anyone in the early Church believing in a symbolic meal. Read about the Early Church Fathers on this subject here.
I highly recommend listening to the following talk by Brant Pitre on Jesus and the Jewish Roots of the Eucharist. He explains why the Jewish converts to Christianity so readily believed in the Real Presence of Christ in the Eucharist. It’s well worth your hour. Link is here.
Charity,
Pork