As I understand it any valid marriage between a baptized man and woman would receive an outpouring of grace regardless of the denomination of either party or where/how the marriage ceremony is performed. In other words a Methodist woman marrying a Catholic man in either a Catholic or Methodist rite would still receive the same outpouring of grace.
In your question it is unclear if the non-catholic would include those that are unbaptized. If it is a valid marriage between someone that is baptized and unbaptized then I’m not as sure since it is a natural rather than a sacramental marriage.
I was baptized (Presbyterian) and my wife was not baptized when we married so it was a valid natural marriage. When she was baptized and received into the Catholic Church 9 years later I know that our marriage automatically became sacramental at that point. The question is if the outpouring or grace occurred for us at different times (me at the marriage, her at baptism) or only when the marriage became sacramental? I suspect it was when the marriage became sacramental just because of a change in the texture of our marriage since her baptism.
