With regard to all the permanent positions of the Church, there is, firstly, not only a command to appoint suitable people to fill it, but also a specification of the qualifications they must have. Titus 1, for example. Secondly, records exist of the actual appointment of such people. And thirdly, there is abundant historical evidence that proves their continuance in the Church from the early church until now. With regard to the Apostles, all this is lacking. If it’s true that the bishops of Rome, or of any other church, are apostles (the Copts trace a direct succession back to Mark), invested the same authority to teach and to rule as the original messengers of Christ, then I agree we must have the same faith in their teaching, and submit the same obedience to their commands as are due to the inspired writings of the New Testament. To be able to answer “Catholic? Why?” is surely when you can prove that premise true. (See! Amazingly linked back to the topic!)
Della:
Christ did not found the Reformed Church or any other Protestant church.
Correct. That is not our definition of the Church for which Christ promised salvation.
Patrick, you haven’t moved the conversation on at all. I think we all agree the 11, and later Paul, received a direct commission from Christ. The question is whether the
successors to the apostles had the authority to define new dogma, or if they were church leaders of the regular, fallible kind.
PR, hi there. I was already composing this when I saw your reply. Time zones have something to do with it, and also the lack of interest in endless replies. Something I say might pique someone’s curiosity and encourage them to research and test for themselves. But I can’t reply to every piece of assertion that I am hopelessly wrong and Catholicism is obviously right. (For that matter, on some threads - did you see my posts on Chalcedon? - no one engages with what I say at all. I’m not going to hold my breath for someone to say, “okay, those are some good points”.) I did see your comment about sin passing from the father, but you agreed that Mary being sinless was not necessary for Christ to be sinless so I’m not sure what gap that would fill. The problem of Catholic private judgement looms rather large - there is no access to an infallible guide, only these fallible ones - but here, disagree or not, it’s out there:
“Roman Catholic doctrine and tradition hold that Adam’s sin has been passed down from generation to generation. It is not simply that the world around us has been corrupted by Adam’s sin in such a way that all those who have followed have found it nearly impossible not to sin (an admittedly simplified version of the Eastern Christian view), but that our very nature was corrupted in such a way that life without sin is impossible. This corruption of our nature, passed down from father to child, is what we call Original Sin.”
…
“Jesus Christ was born without Original Sin because He was conceived without Original Sin. The Son of the Blessed Virgin Mary, Christ is also the Son of God. In the Roman Catholic tradition, Original Sin is, as I mentioned, passed down from father to child…”
catholicism.about.com/od/beliefsteachings/p/Who-Was-Born-Without-Original-Sin.htm
This is obviously the way that Protestants explain why Jesus is sinless too, and it’s what I was brought up with. There may be one or two scenarios that it can’t explain. But I’d still say, that even if Mary was miraculously - however briefly - made sinless, it should not be an article of faith as it has no bearing on the gospel. Mary’s sinlessness is just speculation. (Sorry, other folk, this goes back to another thread.)
I know I’m going to take a lot of flack. It’s the nature of the beast, and that’s fine. I’m sure the Catholics on this thread are sick of my replies, and I’m going to check out of this thread.
God bless
Stephen