Catholicism and Circular Reasoning: Take Two

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So, it seems to me like these arguments are logically valid and, for a Catholic, their premises will be accepted as true.

Throughout the discussion so far, almost all the objections have been to the first premise of the first argument.

I think I’ve adequately replied to them. Premise 1 merely describes a fact about Catholic epistemology. The objections presented misunderstood premise 1, and that’s totally understandable. As I said from the get go, these words and their constructions can be ambiguous, and misunderstanding is near inevitable. However, it seems to me like we’re generally on the same page now.

So, what is the verdict? Do you accept the conclusions to these arguments, or do you have objections to their premises?
Bear with me in my continued lack of understanding of your argument. Here’s how I would summarize it:
Because I was not in Palestine 2000 years ago to personally hear the revelation of Jesus, I have to trust the authority of the Catholic Church to have faithfully preserved this revelation for me over the ages. But the only way to trust the authority of the Catholic Church is to appeal to God’s revelation through Jesus, which I only know through the authority of the Catholic Church.

Is this close to what you’re getting at?
 
… it’s false that my "argument depends on a circularity to refute a circularity

  1. You are using formal logic as your method of argumentation.
  2. Logic is based on the Law of Identity.
  3. The Law of Identity is circular, A=A (that is literally as circular as reasoning can be)
All logical arguments relies on that circularity. So it is necessarily true that your argument relies on circularity as well. The logical contradiction arises when your argument attempts to refute our beliefs on the basis of their circularity, which is what begging the question *is.
  • This is what I mean when I say that your argument depends on a circularity to refute circularity and thus is a logical contradiction.
Before getting into whether these arguments actually do rely on circularity, it’s imperative to note that they’re not attacking circularity.
You just admitted to Dave that it did…**Circularity is the conclusion of the 2nd argument.
** Begging the question is circularity
Their conclusions only seek to show that if a Catholic does X, then the Catholic does Y. i.e., that Catholics must beg the question if they do (x). They say nothing about whether circularity is bad, or irrational, or renders the argument invalid.
That’s not what you told me earlier either. I asked So I have to wonder what the point of the argument is? You replied, **So, if my argument succeeds (which, I’m absolutely confident it does), a Catholic cannot provide a rational argument for Catholicism, and non-Catholics are justified in believing Catholicism is irrational. ** #23. So contrary to your claim here, you are indeed saying its irrational.

The premise’ here don’t really matter at all. Its the fact that you use formal logic as your method of argumentation that introduces circularity into your argument because logic depends on a circularity. As long as your argument takes a logical form your going to hit this wall. You have made an interesting variation on a rather old argument, but it still fails for the same reasons.
 
Bear with me in my continued lack of understanding of your argument. Here’s how I would summarize it:
Because I was not in Palestine 2000 years ago to personally hear the revelation of Jesus, I have to trust the authority of the Catholic Church to have faithfully preserved this revelation for me over the ages. But the only way to trust the authority of the Catholic Church is to appeal to God’s revelation through Jesus, which I only know through the authority of the Catholic Church.

Is this close to what you’re getting at?
Luke K: Thanks for your question.

Not quite, but after reading your summary I think I see the core here. Your summary seems to be concerned with the first premise of Argument 1:

(1) If the Catholic appeals to God’s revelation, then s/he presupposes the authority of the Catholic Church. [Premise]

The most important thing to note is that this premise is not claiming a Catholic commits circular reasoning, or begs the question. This premise isn’t saying anything about circularity etc.

This premise merely says that because a Catholic believes that God entrusted Scripture and Tradition to the RCC, whenever a Catholic appeals to Scripture or Tradition, s/he presupposes this belief.

Much like if I believed Dr. Seuss was the author of Green Eggs and Ham, whenever I cited that book I’d at least implicitly presuppose that it was written by Seuss.

Remember, the premise isn’t claiming such a presupposition is circular or that it begs the question. I hope that helps, and I apologize for the ambiguous nature of some of the terms.
 
  1. You are using formal logic as your method of argumentation.
  2. Logic is based on the Law of Identity.
  3. The Law of Identity is circular, A=A (that is literally as circular as reasoning can be)
So, the first thing to notice is that this argument isn’t valid so the premises could be true and the conclusion still false. However, let’s suppose it’s valid.

I reject 3, since on a Foundationalist account things like the law of identity aren’t justified by argumentation; therefore, they cannot be, by the very definition, circular.

By foundationalism I mean that broad category of epistemological theories which say we have certain beliefs which we’re non-inferentially justified in accepting. i.e., I’m justified in believing these things (whatever they are) not on the basis of any inference, but simply because of their undeniable (incorrigible), belief-eliciting nature.

Aristotelianism and Thomism are foundationalist, they call such beliefs ‘First Principles.’

I would be very hesitant about going down this road, it directly leads to radical skepticism. :eek: Without foundational beliefs which we’re justified in holding but which we don’t need to justify in holding them, we must provide inferential justification for all beliefs, and the attempted justifications never cease. They rest on no foundation.

Therefore, Catholics shouldn’t accept your argument.
You just admitted to Dave that it did…Circularity is the conclusion of the 2nd argument.
The conclusion of the 2nd argument says that if a Catholic does (x) then s/he commits circular reasoning. It doesn’t say whether this is bad, undesirable, irrational, or invalid-rendering.

When I told you that if my arguments succeed then Catholicism is irrational I was explicating an implication of my arguments.

That Catholicism is irrational isn’t stated in any of my premises or conclusions. But, if you think circular reasoning is irrational, and it is true that Catholicism entails circular reasoning, it follows that Catholicism is irrational. Such a conclusion is irrelevant to the argument’s soundness per se though.
 
Pardon me, but I’m not sure what conclusion you’re trying to reach with your argument here.

If you are trying to conclude that Catholics have no basis for defending Catholicism because any defense they give presupposes a faith in the Church, I will have to beg to differ with you. Not all Catholic arguments presuppose the authority of the very Church they are trying to defend per se. We have the less subjective reality of history to back up our claims. (I say less subjective here because history, like any “science” is subjective in varying degrees; one’s picture of history can be quite different depending on the interpreter.)

Also, logical arguments aren’t necessarily always a good justification for believing one way or another, are they? We believe what we believe based on faith (guided by reason), not based on conclusions gathered from logical arguments. After all, can you give a logical argument defending logical arguments?
 
RomanCatechism: Thanks for your reply.

I think you’re proposing objections in a hypothetical manner: just in case you’ve interpreted my arguments correctly. However, I don’t think the arguments have been understood correctly. I’ll try and clarify the arguments, though, by going premise by premise. Hopefully this way I don’t cause any confusion.

The first thing to note is that these arguments are logically valid and therefore if their premises are true, then their conclusions have to be true. That’s what logical validity means. So, if you want to reject the conclusions, you must find a way to defeat one of the premises.

Argument 1:

(1) If the Catholic appeals to God’s revelation, then s/he presupposes the authority of the Catholic Church. [Premise]

This premise means that because the Catholic believes that God has entrusted Scripture and Tradition to the RCC, whenever a Catholic appeals to Scripture or Tradition, s/he presupposes that belief. This doesn’t say the Catholic commits circular reasoning or anything like that; just that s/he presupposes her belief about the RCC.

(2) If the Catholic presupposes the authority of the Catholic Church, then s/he presupposes that the papacy is a truth revealed by God. [Premise]

This premise just says that the authority the Catholic presupposes in (1) is that of the magisterium, which in this case is the bishops and the pope.

Bishops receive their power through ordination but their right to exercise it from the pope. So, the bishops whose authority was presupposed in (1) were those who’d received their right to exercise it from the pope. Therefore, in presupposing their authority, the Catholic presupposes they’d received it from the pope. But, if the papacy weren’t a truth revealed by God, then these bishops wouldn’t have received the right to exercise their power as the Catholic believes they had. Therefore, in presupposing the authority of the Catholic Church, s/he presupposes that the papacy is a truth revealed by God.

This premise does not claim such a presupposition is circular reasoning, or begging the question; just that the Catholic presupposes this.

(3) Therefore, if the Catholic appeals to God’s revelation, then s/he presupposes that the papacy is a truth revealed by God. [From (1), (2) Hypothetical Syllogism]

This follows deductively from the premises.

Argument 2:

(1’) Only if the Catholic appeals to God’s revelation can s/he show that the papacy is a truth revealed by God.

This premise merely states that if God revealed that the papacy were a truth then this revelation would be within the Deposit of Faith with the rest of God’s special revealed truths, and if the Catholic wants to show that God has revealed the papacy as a truth, s/he must therefore make appeal to that Deposit.

This premise doesn’t say the Catholic is circular in doing so.

(2’) If the Catholic appeals to God’s revelation, then s/he presupposes that the papacy is a truth revealed by God.

This premise is the conclusion of the first argument.

(3’) Therefore, only if the Catholic presupposes that the papacy is a truth revealed by God can s/he show that the papacy is a truth revealed by God. [From (1), (2) by Hypothetical Syllogism]

This follows deductively from the premises.

I hope this helps!
 

I reject 3, since on a Foundationalist account things like the law of identity aren’t justified by argumentation; therefore, they cannot be, by the very definition, circular.
A=A demonstrates the tightest possible epistemic circularity without recourse to any kind of argumentation to justify its axiomatic acceptance. Circularity doesn’t depend on syllogistic logical structure for its existence, its depends on reflexivity, self reference.
 
warpspeedpetey: I’ve given much thought to your objection. As simple as it seems, it gives rise to a host of issues. I’ve spent a lot of time constructing the following response to it. I consider it to be a definitive and conclusive refutation of your objection. Thankfully, we’re dealing with logic here, so the issues are black or white, very much like mathematics. I believe each of the following points suffice, individually, to refute your objection.

The reason we’re currently debating about logic and circularity, etc. is because you proposed an objection to my arguments. This objection, you said, must be addressed before we consider the premises of the arguments.

The objection claims that my arguments are self-refuting, since they attempt to attack circularity but rely on circularity in doing so.

I’ve proven that this objection fails, at least because neither of my arguments are interested in refuting circularity, or showing that it is irrational, undesirable or…bad, etc. That’s not their purpose. This is an undeniable fact. So, regardless of whether A=A is circular, or if my arguments depend on circularity, your objection has already been defeated.

Having said that, you’re still proposing that my arguments depend upon circularity. It is this claim that I will now defeat.

Response:

1. The logic I’m employing here does not rely on the law of identity, formulated as A=A. That is demonstrably false. My logic includes the law of identity defined as ‘If p is true, then p is true’ or, in other words, p → p. [1] This is a tautology. But, do my arguments depend on this tautology? No more than they depend on the veracity of any other tautology [and there are many others]. There’s nothing special about the law of identity apropos my arguments. Also, not all logics accept this law. So, at least on this account, your objection is defeated.

2. Is it possible for the law of identity to be circular? Much less, epistemically circular?

No. Circularity is applicable only to arguments. The law of identity is not an argument.

What is an argument? “An argument, in the sense used in logic, is a set of statements consisting of premises and a conclusion. The premises are statements that give supporting evidence; the conclusion is what is allegedly supported by these statements.” [2]

So, circularity cannot possibly apply to this law. But, much less than epistemic circularity [a term coined by Alston]. Epistemic circularity occurs in an argument when the truth of the conclusion must be presupposed in order to have justified belief in a premise. Of course, the law of identity cannot be described in such terms.

So, at least on this account, your objection is defeated.

3. I charge your objection with equivocation.

(Your Objection): These arguments are self-refuting because they attempt to attack circularity, but they rely on circularity in order to do so.

The same word, circularity, is used above to communicate two different concepts and therefore, your objection equivocates. In the second part of the objection, “but they rely on circularity in order to do so” the word “circularity” is used to denote an idea applicable to the law of identity. In the first part, the same word is used to denote an idea applicable only to arguments.

At least on this account your objection has been defeated.

Taken together, I believe we should be in a position to discuss the premises now.

[1] The law of identity is defined as “If p is true, then p is true” [p → p] by, practically, all logic text books, here is an example:

“The principle of identity. This principle asserts that if any statement is true, then it is true. Using our notation we may rephrase it by saying that the principle of identity asserts that every statement of the form p → p must be true, that every such statement is a tautology.” (emphasis theirs)

Copi, Irving M., and Carl Cohen. Introduction To Logic. 12th ed. Upper Saddle River, NJ: Pearson Prentice Hall, 2005. p. 356.

speaking of which:

“Nevertheless, in regarding the entire system of deductive logic, these three principles [principle of identity, principle of non-contradiction and the principle of excluded middle] are no more important or fruitful than many others. Indeed, there are tautologies that are more fruitful than they are for the purposes of deduction, and in that sense more important than these three.” - ibid.

[2] Gensler, Harry. Introduction to Logic. New York: Taylor & Francis, 2010. p. 2
 
Perplexity, I’ll try one more time to explain my disagreement.

Premise (1) is false because as a Catholic right now, regardless of what caused me to become Catholic, I do not presuppose the authority of the RCC when appealing to the historical fact of God’s revelation through his Son Jesus. By appealing to the revelation of God with regards to the historical Jesus of Nazareth, and my personal acceptance of his divinity and his historical establishment of the Papacy, I can conclude without presupposing the Papacy that the Papacy is a truth revealed by God. This is my true and continuing belief as a Catholic right now.

The actual historical probability of Jesus saying the words recorded in Matthew is irrelevant, because the only issue being discussed here is if Catholicism’s stance is rational, not whether it’s historically sound.

I know you’ve replied to this several times already, and you say that your argument still stands in the face of Keating’s spiral argument, but I simply do NOT understand what you’re getting at then. It’s like you’re thinking something different than what the words in your argument are communicating, and I am totally baffled.
 
LukeK: Thank you for bearing with me. I’m confident I understand now!

Premise 1 isn’t about appealing to God’s revelation qua historicity. It’s about appealing to God’s revelation qua God’s revelation. So, we’re both looking at this object, “God’s revelation” and you’re viewing this object from a historical point of view, [or in your words, “the historical fact of God’s revelation through his Son Jesus”] I’m viewing it from a theological point of view.

So, you’re right. You, as a Roman Catholic, don’t presuppose [or at least, have to] your RC beliefs when appealing to the historical fact of God’s revelation.

I think this distinction accounts for why I was saying it doesn’t matter if you accepted that God revealed (x) because of historical considerations, just if you actually believe that (x) is God’s revelation, and why you were saying ‘but it does matter!’

This is also why my argument avoids Keating’s spiral argument. i.e., we’re viewing this object only from a Catholic theological point of view.

That’s not to trivialize the historical perspective, we’re just using different lenses here.

It would seem therefore that you could accept premise 1 without problem. e.g., ‘Sure, when appealing to God’s revelation qua God’s revelation, I presuppose…etc.’
 
…neither of my arguments are interested in refuting circularity, or showing that it is irrational…
By definition your conclusion asserts irrationality because it asserts a fallacy.
**fal·la·cy/ˈfaləsē/Noun
  1. A mistaken belief, esp. one based on unsound argument.
  2. A failure in reasoning that renders an argument invalid.
    **
1. The logic I’m employing here does not rely on the law of identity, formulated as A=A. …
p=(p v p), p=p. lol
…Circularity is applicable only to arguments
3. I charge your objection with equivocation…an idea applicable only to arguments.
A=A. I can keep demonstrating this example of circularity without an argument, just as long as you keep insisting it requires one.
 
LukeK: Scratch my last response. We’re understanding the word ‘presuppose’ differently.

When you say that you don’t presuppose your Catholic beliefs when appealing to God’s revelation I think perhaps you mean that you don’t consciously do so. You mean you can appeal to God’s revelation without any mentioning of your Catholic beliefs whatsoever, so in what sense would you be presupposing them?

The only thing I mean when I say you presuppose them is the following: as a Catholic, you must believe that the RCC is responsible for producing [albeit instrumentally], protecting and proliferating the Deposit of Faith, and the RCC had(s) the authority to do so, and therefore that you cannot appeal to God’s revelation and at the same time not believe these things.

So, you don’t have to consciously call them to mind when appealing to God’s revelation, you don’t have to make any mention of them at all in order for you to presuppose them. It’s just that as a Catholic you cannot not believe these things.
 
LukeK: Thank you for bearing with me. I’m confident I understand now!

Premise 1 isn’t about appealing to God’s revelation qua historicity. It’s about appealing to God’s revelation qua God’s revelation. So, we’re both looking at this object, “God’s revelation” and you’re viewing this object from a historical point of view, [or in your words, “the historical fact of God’s revelation through his Son Jesus”] I’m viewing it from a theological point of view.

So, you’re right. You, as a Roman Catholic, don’t presuppose [or at least, have to] your RC beliefs when appealing to the historical fact of God’s revelation.

I think this distinction accounts for why I was saying it doesn’t matter if you accepted that God revealed (x) because of historical considerations, just if you actually believe that (x) is God’s revelation, and why you were saying ‘but it does matter!’

This is also why my argument avoids Keating’s spiral argument. i.e., we’re viewing this object only from a Catholic theological point of view.

That’s not to trivialize the historical perspective, we’re just using different lenses here.

It would seem therefore that you could accept premise 1 without problem. e.g., ‘Sure, when appealing to God’s revelation qua God’s revelation, I presuppose…etc.’
Then I still hold to my disagreement with (1). I don’t need the Magisterium to tell me that the historical facts surrounding Jesus’ life are theologically Divine Revelation, or that they belong in the Deposit of Faith. The RCC’s hold on God’s revelation of Jesus’ divine authority DOES belong to the RCC, but not because of the Magisterium/Papacy. Remember, the “Church” is the body of believers. Therefore, the revelation of Jesus belongs to the RCC by the intrinsic fact that any believer in Jesus belongs to the Church. It does not belong to the Church because of the Papacy/Magisterium specifically.
 
By definition your conclusion asserts irrationality because it asserts a fallacy.
**fal·la·cy/ˈfaləsē/Noun
  1. A mistaken belief, esp. one based on unsound argument.
  2. A failure in reasoning that renders an argument invalid.
    **
    p=(p v p), p=p. lolA=A. I can keep demonstrating this example of circularity without an argument, just as long as you keep insisting it requires one.
warpspeedpetey:

I can just grant that my conclusion asserts a Catholic acts irrationally in the specified circumstances without conceding that my arguments are intended to refute circularity. So, granting your point about fallacies, your objection is still defeated. The only way your objection is gonna work is if my arguments try to refute ‘circularity’ but employ circularity in the process. I think the objection is a lost cause.

Again, I can just grant that (p v p) is the same is p = p without conceding that these tautologies can be circular. So, granting your point, I still wouldn’t need to concede that it is circular. You didn’t address the fact that only arguments can be circular, and the Law of Identity isn’t an argument.

So, as I see things, I’ll just grant both of your points and still reject your objection.
 
LukeK: Scratch my last response. We’re understanding the word ‘presuppose’ differently.

When you say that you don’t presuppose your Catholic beliefs when appealing to God’s revelation I think perhaps you mean that you don’t consciously do so. You mean you can appeal to God’s revelation without any mentioning of your Catholic beliefs whatsoever, so in what sense would you be presupposing them?

The only thing I mean when I say you presuppose them is the following: as a Catholic, you must believe that the RCC is responsible for producing [albeit instrumentally], protecting and proliferating the Deposit of Faith, and the RCC had(s) the authority to do so, and therefore that you cannot appeal to God’s revelation and at the same time not believe these things.
Yes, I can appeal to God’s revelation of Jesus and not appeal to the Papacy/Magisterium. From my last post, I realized that I am disagreeing with Premise (2) now. I presuppose the authority of the Church with regards to God’s revelation of Jesus not because of the Papacy, but because the Church by definition consists of the body of believers (people who believe in God’s revelation through/of Jesus).
 
warpspeedpetey:

I can just grant that my conclusion asserts a Catholic acts irrationally in the specified circumstances without conceding that my arguments are intended to refute circularity. So, granting your point about fallacies, your objection is still defeated. The only way your objection is gonna work is if my arguments try to refute ‘circularity’ but employ circularity in the process. I think the objection is a lost cause.

Again, I can just grant that (p v p) is the same is p = p without conceding that these tautologies can be circular. So, granting your point, I still wouldn’t need to concede that it is circular. You didn’t address the fact that only arguments can be circular, and the Law of Identity isn’t an argument.

So, as I see things, I’ll just grant both of your points and still reject your objection.
Your claim of irrationality is not backed by the argument you presented as has been shown by a number of posters. Your premises are flawed, either by way of being false or incomplete (aka strawman).

And I stand by my one of my original thoughts that your premise 2 is simply a specific restatement of premise 1, making your argument lack proper form.
 
Yes, I can appeal to God’s revelation of Jesus and not appeal to the Papacy/Magisterium. From my last post, I realized that I am disagreeing with Premise (2) now. I presuppose the authority of the Church in regards to God’s revelation of Jesus not because of the Papacy, but because the Church by definition consists of the body of believers.
Whew, good ol’ philosophy of religion! I think we’re progressing but if you don’t mind I’d like to get a firm grasp on which direction:

Ok, so if I’m understanding correctly you have not accepted premise 1?

(2) doesn’t make much sense without (1) because the authority being presupposed in (2) is that of (1).

So where do you stand with this?

(1) If the Catholic appeals to God’s revelation, then s/he presupposes the authority of the Catholic Church. [Premise]
 
Whew, good ol’ philosophy of religion! I think we’re progressing but if you don’t mind I’d like to get a firm grasp on which direction:

Ok, so if I’m understanding correctly you have not accepted premise 1?

(2) doesn’t make much sense without (1) because the authority being presupposed in (2) is that of (1).

So where do you stand with this?

(1) If the Catholic appeals to God’s revelation, then s/he presupposes the authority of the Catholic Church. [Premise]
(1) and (2) are false. (1) is false because the authority of the Church only comes as an intrinsic constitutive result of the Catholic’s belief in Jesus.

(2) is false because the Papacy specifically does not have authority over God’s fundamental revelation of himself to humanity through Jesus. That authority belongs to the assent of the individual, who constitutes the Church.

The Papacy was a unique role established by Christ to define matters of doctrine regarding Jesus’ revelation which are binding on all believers in Jesus (members of the Church). It is NOT the Papacy’s role to bind on Catholics the assent to Jesus’ divine authority, because that decision rests with the individual’s acceptance of Jesus. You do not become a member of the Church until you accept Jesus, and the Papacy’s authority is only binding on members of the Church.
 
…without conceding that my arguments are intended to refute circularity.
Your argument concludes we are committing a fallacy while committing the same fallacy. That is what makes them self refuting and therefore a logical contradiction. What you intended to refute doesn’t absolve your argument of that contradiction. The only thing that does that is not using a classical logic to make it.
…You didn’t address the fact that only arguments can be circular, and the Law of Identity isn’t an argument.
A=A. I keep demonstrating circularity without argument, every time you make the assertion that circularity requires an argument. This is probably the third or fourth time now. I will print it twice bold and red just to make sure you see it demonstrated again. A=A.
 
Behind your arguments is, I think, a misunderstanding of Catholic epistemology.

We claim that we can arrive at the following by reason and facts alone:

-the existence of God
-that God revealed himself in history
-that the Catholic Church possesses the fullness of that revelation

On those “preliminaries,” we then assent with faith in that revelation, which includes the teaching of the papacy.

I think this might help you, OP:

ewtn.com/library/CHRIST/FTHRT.txt

I hope you get around to it. It is an excellent explanation.
 
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