T
truthseeker32
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Some, maybe, but not most.This view has become so damaging that it is a problem now within Orthodoxy in the west. Converts approach the liturgy like it is an opera. After the novelty wears off, boredom ensues.
Some, maybe, but not most.This view has become so damaging that it is a problem now within Orthodoxy in the west. Converts approach the liturgy like it is an opera. After the novelty wears off, boredom ensues.
There are some pastoral exceptions that could be made but not on many of them. I’ll link a podcast for you if you want to hear our position (and possibly get into a rage). Hope you enjoy/So I am going to ask and it is not meant to be snarky, just want to know. With the things you have cited here, doesn’t these things listed pretty much sum up what separates the two churches? and if so which items would be negotiable?
Wiki has this statement after the quote of this decree from the Council:I appreciate Rome’s return to synodality and concurrent deemphasizing of ultramontanism. Unfortunately, so long as the doctrines of papal supremacy and infallibility remain on paper, there can be no union. The possibility of Rome reasserting a strong view of papal supremacy still exists. Reinterpreting Papal Supremacy to give it a more conciliar tone is a nice gesture but the Pope still retains the power to unilaterally impose his will upon the entire Church. I hope Rome returns to the teaching regarding papal authority articulated by one section of the council of Constance. It’s too bad this section was abrogated after the Great Schism. Perhaps if it had been retained, the schism between East and West would have been over by now.
The Council of Constance–“Legitimately assembled in the Holy Spirit, constituting a general council and representing the Catholic Church militant, it has power immediately from Christ; and that everyone of whatever state of whatever state or dignity, even papal, is bound to obey it in those matters which pertain to the faith, the eradication of the said schism and the general reform of the said church of God in head and members”
Did the Church declared the first session invalid or did Pope Gregory XII? The point I’m trying to make is that papal supremacy has been a controversial dogma even within Roman Catholicism. Why else would it have to be reinterpreted at Vatican II to give it a more conciliar flair? Vatican I and Vatican II are markedly different in tone when it comes to the papacy. Regardless, from a Roman Catholic standpoint, the papacy is not central to the Church being the Church (The great commission and apostolic succession are essential). If it is, then the Orthodox Church cannot rightly be called a part of the Church. Rome, however, does regard the Orthodox as being within the Church. They are even allowed to commune at a Roman Catholic Church is they wish.Wiki has this statement after the quote of this decree from the Council:
This decree, however, is not considered valid by the Magisterium of the Catholic Church, since it was never approved by Pope Gregory XII or his successors, and was passed by the Council in a session before his confirmation. The Church declared the first sessions of the Council of Constance an invalid and illicit assembly of bishops, gathered under the authority of John XXIII.
I agree with you if we narrow entertainment to mean guitars and gospel music. Entertainment is whatever titillates the senses. Orthodox worship is full of sacred icons and incense, which is meant to help lift our minds and hearts to heaven. If we focus on the icons and incense by themselves without considering what they symbolize, then the Divine Liturgy becomes a kind of entertainment. Instead of a rock concert, it becomes a kind of opera. In my opinion, most Orthodox criticisms of the modern Roman Rite fall within the category of aestheticism and the debate degenerates into whose preference is better.If I hadn’t seen the context of your response, I would have assumed it is a criticism of post-Vatican II Catholic liturgies that seem more concerned with appeasing the contemporary masses than conveying the rich symbolism and worship that was found in the pre-Vatican II Mass and is still found in Eastern liturgy. To describe Eastern liturgy as “entertaining” is silly.
That’s not entirely accurate. Rome considers the Orthodox, both Chalcedonian and Non-Chalcedonian, as well as the Assyrians to be true Churches, rather than ecclesiastical communities. They are viewed as being in “imperfect communion” with the Church due to their possessing valid sacraments through apostolic succession, but are not fully within the Church. They are permitted to receive the sacraments in a Catholic Church because they themselves have valid sacraments and share Rome’s view of the Real Presence. That does not equate to being within the Church, political correctness aside.Did the Church declared the first session invalid or did Pope Gregory XII? The point I’m trying to make is that papal supremacy has been a controversial dogma even within Roman Catholicism. Why else would it have to be reinterpreted at Vatican II to give it a more conciliar flair? Vatican I and Vatican II are markedly different in tone when it comes to the papacy. Regardless, from a Roman Catholic standpoint, the papacy is not central to the Church being the Church (The great commission and apostolic succession are essential). If it is, then the Orthodox Church cannot rightly be called a part of the Church. Rome, however, does regard the Orthodox as being within the Church. They are even allowed to commune at a Roman Catholic Church is they wish.
But what does “imperfect communion” mean? You’re either in communion or you’re not. Also, you wrote in your first sentence that Rome considers the Orthodox and Assyrians to be true Churches but then you’re last sentence seems to suggest they are not within the Church?That’s not entirely accurate. Rome considers the Orthodox, both Chalcedonian and Non-Chalcedonian, as well as the Assyrians to be true Churches, rather than ecclesiastical communities. They are viewed as being in “imperfect communion” with the Church due to their possessing valid sacraments through apostolic succession, but are not fully within the Church. They are permitted to receive the sacraments in a Catholic Church because they themselves have valid sacraments and share Rome’s view of the Real Presence. That does not equate to being within the Church, political correctness aside.
are Baptist churches in communion with yours? It’s like this, but Orthodox are much more united, lacking very little in ecclesiastical matters.But what does “imperfect communion” mean? You’re either in communion or you’re not. Also, you wrote in your first sentence that Rome considers the Orthodox and Assyrians to be true Churches but then you’re last sentence seems to suggest they are not within the Church?
seeing as I attend an Orthodox Church, they are definitively not in communion with us. They are not even churches in the technical sense of the word because they are heterodox and do not possess apostolic succession. There is no gray area.are Baptist churches in communion with yours? It’s like this, but Orthodox are much more united, lacking very little in ecclesiastical matters.
They are not completely heterodox, though. They have Baptism, believe in the trinity, and the Gospel. They are “a” church.seeing as I attend an Orthodox Church, they are definitively not in communion with us. They are not even churches in the technical sense of the word because they are heterodox and do not possess apostolic succession. There is no gray area.
.Jon Mallory #45
The point I’m trying to make is that papal supremacy has been a controversial dogma even within Roman Catholicism. Why else would it have to be reinterpreted at Vatican II to give it a more conciliar flair? Vatican I and Vatican II are markedly different in tone when it comes to the papacy
Such a denial of Christ tries to debunk history:Regardless, from a Roman Catholic standpoint, the papacy is not central to the Church being the Church (The great commission and apostolic succession are essential). If it is, then the Orthodox Church cannot rightly be called a part of the Church.
False.#48
But what does “imperfect communion” mean? You’re either in communion or you’re not. Also, you wrote in your first sentence that Rome considers the Orthodox and Assyrians to be true Churches but then you’re last sentence seems to suggest they are not within the Church?
You’re anti-ecumenist antagonism towards the Orthodox flies in the face of Church teaching regarding the Orthodox. Clearly some spiritual unity exists from Rome’s point of view if Orthodox are allowed to take communion in Roman Catholic Churches (not to mention they have valid holy orders. Don’t get me wrong, I appreciate such honest and clear language regarding your view of the Orthodox Church but I don’t think the Vatican shares your view. The Orthodox likewise have a strong view of the RCC. It is in heresy and there can be no false unity without one side giving up its most fundamental doctrines. Also, the Orthodox Church is united by Christ the true head of the Church. We have no need for some temporal, mortal “super bishop” to impose unity from above. You’re view of the papacy, in my opinion, idolizes the Pope and makes him more than human..
This is the reality from Vatican II, Lumen Gentium 25: **“definitions of the Roman Pontiff are of themselves, and not by the consent of the Church, irreformable.”
**
The actual vote for Mallory’s “controversial dogma” is that “many of the bishops who attended Vatican I left the council prior to the discussion/vote on papal infallibility because they disagreed with the idea of formally proclaiming such teaching.” That set the tone for downgrading the actual dogma, and trying to restrict the Pope through an Ecumenical Council. In fact, at the Public Session 433 voted for the Definition, 2 against, and 66 absentees wrote the Pope as against. All of the absentees eventually declared their full acceptance, a massive majority of the original 601 bishops present.” (Questions People Ask, Dr Leslie Rumble, Chevalier, 1975, p 159).
The Authority Of The Pope by Jeffrey A. Mirus, Ph.D.
“Finally, it is often remarked that the late date of Vatican I’s teachings shows **the primacy **to be a new idea. To the contrary, as has been indicated here, the idea is as old as Christianity itself. The Church defines a doctrine only when necessary, and her relative silence over many long centuries actually suggests that this portion of the faith was rarely doubted. The Church has ever believed that the popes alone have the keys to salvation in Christ. Moreover, she has always affirmed that in providing grace and truth, the papacy liberates, not enslaves. It frees men from error and sin, and assists them in attaining a spiritual maturity, which greatly facilitates the continual choice of the good”. [My bold].
catholicculture.org/culture/library/view.cfm?recnum=4319
Such a denial of Christ tries to debunk history:
False.
- Christ built His Catholic Church on Peter
- He **alone **was given the Keys to the Kingdom of heaven; promised that the gates of hell would not prevail against Her; mandated by Christ to Strengthen your brethren; feed My sheep.
Spiritual union or unity does not exist, and cannot exist, where truths of faith are denied such as divorce and remarriage, contraception, IVF, and have no doctrine on a host of medical and health ethics, while recognising Anglican orders. They are not a Church but an assemblage of Churches.
Rather, such a denial is more representative of current historical consensus and the view of the Church Fathers..
Such a denial of Christ tries to debunk history:
- Christ built His Catholic Church on Peter
- He **alone **was given the Keys to the Kingdom of heaven; promised that the gates of hell would not prevail against Her; mandated by Christ to Strengthen your brethren; feed My sheep.
Such a personal opinion is totally against what Christ Himself mandated (“from above”), and is not my “view”.Jon Mallory #57
We have no need for some temporal, mortal “super bishop” to impose unity from above. You’re view of the papacy, in my opinion, idolizes the Pope and makes him more than human.
A “historical consensus” by whom?truthseeker32 #58
Rather, such a denial is more representative of current historical consensus and the view of the Church Fathers.
’247. Was not the authority of “binding” and “loosing”, i.e., of legislating, given equally to all the apostles, just as to Peter (Matt., 18:18)?Patristic interpretation of Matt. 16:18 was far from unanimous, and more of the Fathers saw the rock upon which Jesus built his church as Peter’s confession, and not Peter himself.
False.truthseeker32 #58
Peter was the first to be given the keys because he was head of the apostles, but the rest of the twelve received them as well. Even Roman Catholic theologians and historians recognize this.
“You are Peter, and on this rock I will build my Church, and the gates of hell will not prevail against it”Response to 1: Patristic interpretation of Matt. 16:18 was far from unanimous, and more of the Fathers saw the rock upon which Jesus built his church as Peter’s confession, and not Peter himself. Furthermore, even if one did concede that it was indeed Peter the man upon whom Christ established his church, that would be a far shot from proving the Roman Catholic view of Papal Supremacy. Orthodox Christianity holds that all bishops are successors of Peter, and this position is found in the Church Fathers.