Catholics 73 & non-Catholics 66 WHY?

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Let’s discuss the significance [if any is perceived?]

Of the Original Bible [a CATHOLIC birthed book], having 73 books

While the King James has “66”

WHY is this

On What basis is this?

Is there a BIBLICAL justification for either number of books?

With CHARITY PLEASE:thumbsup:

GBY

Patrick
 
Let’s discuss the significance [if any is perceived?]

Of the Original Bible [a CATHOLIC birthed book], having 73 books

While the King James has “66”

WHY is this

On What basis is this?

Is there a BIBLICAL justification for either number of books?

With CHARITY PLEASE:thumbsup:

GBY
The King James actually had 73 books for 150 years after its first printing even though the were assigned to a different area,they were still present
It also had more than a dozen footnoted references to these books as John and Paul lifted material from these books liberally.
The was opposition within dome Churvhes when the reformed conttolled Bible societies finally purged the books
They were never purged from German Bibles.
My favorite quote on defense of these books comes from a very prophetic Angelican Bishop
Who warned that exclusion of these books which questioned the authority of the Church to select a canon of Scripture would eventually lead to the questioning of the entire New Testament. I believe he was right .
I Also believe the inclusion of these books is an internal Protestant Problem as their founding fathers always kept them even if they devalued them.

Patrick
 
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The first King James (1611) also had the 73 books.
 
The first King James (1611) also had the 73 books.
I think that if I recall correctly that it penalized people for not printing the seven books along with it. I accept the current Catholic Canon of the Bible because I accept the authority of Church on this issue. I’m not too worried about the history behind it but if the Church says it is so that’s what I’m going with
 
Thank you!

catholicapologetics.org/ap030700.htm
Melito, bishop of Sardis, an ancient city of Asia Minor (see Rev 3), c. 170 AD produced the first known Christian attempt at an Old Testament canon. His list maintains the Septuagint order of books but contains only the Old Testament protocanonicals minus the Book of Esther.

The Council of Laodicea, c. 360, produced a list of books similar to today’s canon. This was one of the Church’s earliest decisions on a canon.

Pope Damasus, 366-384, in his Decree, listed the books of today’s canon.

The Council of Rome, 382, was the forum which prompted Pope Damasus’ Decree.

Bishop Exuperius of Toulouse wrote to Pope Innocent I in 405 requesting a list of canonical books. Pope Innocent listed the present canon.

The Council of Hippo, a local north Africa council of bishops created the list of the Old and New Testament books in 393 which is the same as the Roman Catholic list today.

The Council of Carthage, a local north Africa council of bishops created the same list of canonical books in 397. This is the council which many Protestant and Evangelical Christians take as the authority for the New Testament canon of books. The Old Testament canon from the same council is identical to Roman Catholic canon today. Another Council of Carthage in 419 offered the same list of canonical books.

Since the Roman Catholic Church does not define truths unless errors abound on the matter, Roman Catholic Christians look to the Council of Florence, an ecumenical council in 1441 for the first definitive list of canonical book
GBY

Patrick
 
The first King James (1611) also had the 73 books.
Hmmmmmm
The King James Version (KJV), also known as the Authorized [sic] Version (AV) or the King James Bible (KJB), is an English translation of the Christian Bible for the Church of England begun in 1604 and completed in 1611.[a] The books of the King James Version include the 39 books of the Old Testament, an intertestamental section containing 14 books of the Apocrypha, and the 27 books of the New Testament.
Thanks

GBY
 
IMHO this is one of the “elephants in the room” for a bible only belief system. This and how the canon was established. 🤷

Peace!!!
 
and I think the Orthodox Bible has more books than the Catholic Bible.
 
I do not think there is one Orthhodox bible (canon).

Peace!!!
This is their view of the canon:

catholicbridge.com/catholic/orthodox/why_orthodox_bible_is_different_from_catholic.php

In addition to this, there is the fact that Greek Orthodox Churches (especially) have a more fluid (less formal or legalistic) notion of how the idea of a “canonical book” should be applied. For example, in the Greek Orthodox Liturgy, they have NEVER read from the Book of Revelation. And, because of this, many modern Greeks will claim that Revelation is “not canonical.” …because they do not read from it in their Greek Liturgy. Now, the fact that the Russian Orthodox Church does read from Revelation in their, Russian Liturgy is beside the point. So, for the Eastern Orthodox, “canonical” does not really refer to a univesally-agreed upon canon, but to the common regional practice of specific Churches. Uunfortunately, this has led some modern Greek and Antiochian Orthodox to claim that the Book of Revelation is “not inspired” and/or “not binding” on them, which is a modernist revision (a heretical novelty), which no ancient Greek or Antiochian would ever claim. For, what their forefathers would say is that Revelation (or another book like it) is still Divinely inspired, but just not canonical (i.e., not approved for reading at their Liturgy). And, for those Easterners who did recognze the binding authority of the Cathaginian canon, they would of course say that Revelation is universally binding (i.e., canonical in a universal sense), but simply not part of their local Liturgical canon.
 
This is their view of the canon:

catholicbridge.com/catholic/orthodox/why_orthodox_bible_is_different_from_catholic.php

In addition to this, there is the fact that Greek Orthodox Churches (especially) have a more fluid (less formal or legalistic) notion of how the idea of a “canonical book” should be applied. For example, in the Greek Orthodox Liturgy, they have NEVER read from the Book of Revelation. And, because of this, many modern Greeks will claim that Revelation is “not canonical.” …because they do not read from it in their Greek Liturgy. Now, the fact that the Russian Orthodox Church does read from Revelation in their, Russian Liturgy is beside the point. So, for the Eastern Orthodox, “canonical” does not really refer to a univesally-agreed upon canon, but to the common regional practice of specific Churches. Uunfortunately, this has led some modern Greek and Antiochian Orthodox to claim that the Book of Revelation is “not inspired” and/or “not binding” on them, which is a modernist revision (a heretical novelty), which no ancient Greek or Antiochian would ever claim. For, what their forefathers would say is that Revelation (or another book like it) is still Divinely inspired, but just not canonical (i.e., not approved for reading at their Liturgy). And, for those Easterners who did recognze the binding authority of the Cathaginian canon, they would of course say that Revelation is universally binding (i.e., canonical in a universal sense), but simply not part of their local Liturgical canon.
Not sure that makes much sense to me…

… but, this seems more clear:
The revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave him to show to his servants what must soon take place; and he made it known by sending his angel to his servant John,**who bore witness to the word of God and to the testimony of Jesus Christ, even to all that he saw.*Blessed is he who reads aloud the words of the prophecy, an blessed are those who hear, and who keep what is written therein; for the time is near.
If this is an inspired book of God, why would it not be a proved to read at Mass?
 
The Ethiopian and Eritrean Orthodox Tewahedo churches (which are not Eastern Orthodox but Oriental Orthodox) have 81 books in their canon, including some additional books in the New Testament.

en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Orthodox_Tewahedo_biblical_canon
I’m curious what these 8 NT books (Sinodos, the two divisions of the Book of the Covenant, Ethiopic Clement, and the Ethiopic Didascalia) say, and what the Catholic Church says about them.
 
Not sure that makes much sense to me…

… but, this seems more clear:
The revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave him to show to his servants what must soon take place; and he made it known by sending his angel to his servant John,**who bore witness to the word of God and to the testimony of Jesus Christ, even to all that he saw.*Blessed is he who reads aloud the words of the prophecy, an blessed are those who hear, and who keep what is written therein; for the time is near.

If this is an inspired book of God, why would it not be a proved to read at Mass?
As the article says…it is a local tradition…“they would of course say that Revelation is universally binding (i.e., canonical in a universal sense), but simply not part of their local Liturgical canon.”…and their understanding of canon is different from your understanding of the word “canon”…in that canon does not equal “inspired”…
 
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