Catholics and Non-Catholics: Do you believe in the Perpetual Virginity of the Blessed Mother?

  • Thread starter Thread starter lax16
  • Start date Start date
Status
Not open for further replies.
uh huh, nice try, you know we don’t believe in Mary as being Divine.
I’ll restate it for him then. If Mary were not perpetually virgin it wouldn’t impede her status as Queen of Heaven or Mother of God. It wouldn’t mean she had committed a sin if she had sexual relations with Joseph after they were married. Mary would have an exalted status either way. Absolutely nothing would have been different.
 
Hi Again, Radical,
  1. Luther, Calvin, and Zwingli all believed Mary a perpetual Virgin. Luther’s scholarship in the New Testament is outstanding. believed her a PV. These men are not popes but their opinion is valuable in the exploration of the topic I think.
  2. The Protoevangelium points toward a PV in Mary. This document was written only about 60 years, it is estimated, after the death of Mary so it was still somewhat fresh, not centuries afterward.
  3. Origen, as previously stated, was one of the earliest (mid third century) to point out the PV of Mary
  4. Jesus gives His Mother to John as an only-child (I happen to be on incidentally so this hits home) would with no brothers. And Hilary of Poitiers seems to agree with me:
    “***If they [the brethren of the Lord] had been Mary’s sons and not those taken from Joseph’s former marriage, she would never have been given over in the moment of the passion [crucifixion] to the apostle John as his mother, the Lord saying to each, ‘Woman, behold your son,’ and to John, ‘Behold your mother’ [John 19:26–27), as he bequeathed filial love to a disciple as a consolation to the one desolate” (Commentary on Matthew 1:4 [A.D. 354]). ***
  5. Apart from Tertullian, there is hardly a shread of anyone claiming Mary wasn’t a PV?
  6. Using the phrase “until” when speaking of Mary’s sexual relations doesn’t prove anything. This word is used in the Old Testament as well and it doesn’t necessarily get used the way the modern English language utilizes it. It could’ve just as easily meant up to that time when Jesus was born. Examples of “until” used in the OT: 2 Samuel 6:23, 1 Timothy 4:13, 1 Corinthians 15:25
  7. James was NOT Jesus’s brother. There are two James’ mentioned in Scripture and we hear their fathers. We have James, the son of Zebede. Then we have James son of Alphaeus. No mention of James, son of Joseph.
  8. Mary was “espoused” to Joseph before the final marriage. This system in Judaism gave Joseph the right to enjoy his wife intimately in the marriage bed before the final marriage ceremony. At the time Mary was already espoused, she said to the Angel Gabriel that she “knew no man” which indicates they obviously weren’t intimate. More than likely, they would’ve been in Jewish culture of that day.
  9. Mary’s true “spouse” is the Holy Spirit who “overshadows” her in Luke 1:34. Notice this overshadowing language is used with Ruth as well in Ruth 3:8. Joseph’s role was more caretaker of Mary and Protector of Jesus than his role was a typical husband with typical needs and roles in our culture.
  10. One of the supposed “brothers” of Jesus mentioned is named Joseph. In Jewish culture it was and is exceptionally rare to name a child the same name as the father. While this is common in our culture, it was very uncommon in Jewish culture. It’s like in American culture how no one names their son “Jesus” yet in Spanish culture they do.
Now I’ll argue, intellectually honest as possible, against the PV of Mary:
  1. The Protoevangelium of Mary is about as reliable as the Protoevangelium of James, a gnostic work. Hardly a reliable source if the CC rejects the gnostic extrabiblical accounts, why be open to the Marian ones?
  2. The argument that Jesus’s “brothers” were just his step-brothers (the kids belonging to Joseph from before he married Mary) is weak in that St. Jerome claims that Joseph was a virgin himself when he became the husband of Mary? How can he have kids from a previous marriage being a virgin like Mary? You use Jerome to prove she was a PV, so you have to be consistent with Jerome’s opinion in saying Joseph was a virgin himself. So the argument of kids from a prior marriage, if you’re going to stick to Jerome, is out!
  3. Most arguments by saints against the PV of Mary took place centuries after her death, by people who never knew her.
  4. The James that is called “brother” is neither the Zebede son or the son of Alphaeus, but some other James we don’t know.
  5. According to Paul, abstinence in marriage is only to be temporary 1 Corin. 7:3-5, and Genesis tells us that marriage is so that a couple will “become one flesh.” Why is it any different with the Holy Family?
  6. Perhaps Jesus did have brothers and just gave Mary to John because he wanted her cared for by someone of the apostolic community, by the “apostle that he loved” and trusted most.
If I may suggest one more point to consider ,on both sides,is to consider the long term ramifications of such dogma on ,: more Marion dogma -this being the beginning ,and the fruits thereof? It seems we go from ever -virgin ,to Immaculate ,to Assumption,mother of God, co -redemptrix etc.etc…I also understand there are more titles to be put before current pope. We also have alledged visions of Mary,and a lot of praying to her etc…I see the evrer-virgin doctrine as a slippery slope to further untruths and carnal ,even pagan imitating practices. On the flip side ,Mary is venerated , by what is simply put forth scripturally.Our prayers generally are to the Lord . Luther ,sees it as wrong to be "active " towards Mary ,and preferred passive veneration-and veneration, still close to catholic dogmas.Protetstants could be lukewarm in her veneartion ,then probably lukewarm to all saints ,but Catholics could go overboard , almost displacing what is reserved for the ministry of the Holy Spirit. You would have a stronger position with me if your Mary dogma stopped at ever-virgin. We also have a stronger base from which to debate -Holy Scriptures .Indeed ,that is what church fathers did -discuss the same scriptures we do today.I believe it is wise to use hindsight to help determine the very beginning of it all. The ever-virgin doctrine today,does not stand alone as it did at the beginning.
 
Ultimately, we believe in the PV of the Most Holy Virgin Mary because the Church has always believed it and it is part of the faith of the Church. We are saved by the faith of the Church and obedience to it, not by our own individualistic faith which has always led to individual interpretations resulting in ecclesial divisions etc.

Whether or not we believe in this or that ultimately has to do with our ecclesial commitment in the first instance.

(And as for the Protoevangelium of James - it has NEVER been condemned as heretical i.e. gnostic by the Church. As for St Joseph - there is more than one tradition about him from the earliest times of the Church. The East sees him as an elderly man, a guardian of the BVM and focuses exclusively on the Mother of God with Her Child. For example, it is formally forbidden in the East to depict St Joseph holding the Christ-Child although there are such icons. St John the Baptist in the East occupies the place that is occupied today by St Joseph in the West).
 
I felt some of the pro PV examples do not stand well on their own feet.
Let me throw in my two (or fifty :p) cents about this. I’ll first make the case that Mary WAS immaculate with some new details:
All the points deleted above and below were good points
  1. Jesus gives His Mother to John as an only-child (I happen to be on incidentally so this hits home) would with no brothers. And Hilary of Poitiers seems to agree with me:
    “*If they [the brethren of the Lord] had been Mary’s sons and not those taken from Joseph’s former marriage, she would never have been given over in the moment of the passion [crucifixion] to the apostle John as his mother, the Lord saying to each, ‘Woman, behold your son,’ and to John, ‘Behold your mother’ [John 19:26–27), as he bequeathed filial love to a disciple as a consolation to the one desolate” (Commentary on Matthew 1:4 [A.D. 354]). *
This proves nothing. As pointed out in another thread, John was the only male disciple at the foot of the cross ergo, John was the only person he could bind to care for his mother. It was a profound act of love and caring for Jesus to think first of his mother while dying on the cross.

Also, the cousins or step children Mary helped raise would have had a strong relationship with and felt responsible to care for Mary (who could not love Mary as their own mother).

No, this was an act of love by Jesus and proves nothing else.
  1. Apart from Tertullian, there is hardly a shread of anyone claiming Mary wasn’t a PV?
The victors write the history - I’m sure dissenting opinions from most writers were not preserved and promoted. Tertullian is an exception, but he often promoted core dogma.
  1. Using the phrase “until” when speaking of Mary’s sexual relations doesn’t prove anything. This word is used in the Old Testament as well and it doesn’t necessarily get used the way the modern English language utilizes it. It could’ve just as easily meant up to that time when Jesus was born. Examples of “until” used in the OT: 2 Samuel 6:23, 1 Timothy 4:13, 1 Corinthians 15:25
These examples are erroneous. I check both NIV and KJV translations
2 Samuel 6:23 does not use ‘until’ but uses to/unto the day of her death. Very different meaning.
**1 Timothy 4:13 ** This is a future tense use of until which signifies a review but not a certain change of state. The Mathew verse is used past tense.
**1 Corinthians 15:25 ** This is also a future tense use of until, and thus an invalid example.
  1. Mary was “espoused” to Joseph before the final marriage. This system in Judaism gave Joseph the right to enjoy his wife intimately in the marriage bed before the final marriage ceremony. At the time Mary was already espoused, she said to the Angel Gabriel that she “knew no man” which indicates they obviously weren’t intimate. More than likely, they would’ve been in Jewish culture of that day.
While it is good to know the custom, the logic is faulty or evidence incomplete.
  • does having the custom to ‘know’ the intended make it a MUST that all couples practiced?
  • how long were they intended? Maybe they had not had time yet to fulfill this custom. Was the custom practiced just after being engaged, or just before the wedding?
  1. Mary’s true “spouse” is the Holy Spirit who “overshadows” her in Luke 1:34. Notice this overshadowing language is used with Ruth as well in Ruth 3:8. Joseph’s role was more caretaker of Mary and Protector of Jesus than his role was a typical husband with typical needs and roles in our culture.
This is pure fancy that is not explicit in scripture.
 
I felt some of the pro PV examples do not stand well on their own feet.

All the points deleted above and below were good points

This proves nothing. As pointed out in another thread, John was the only male disciple at the foot of the cross ergo, John was the only person he could bind to care for his mother. It was a profound act of love and caring for Jesus to think first of his mother while dying on the cross.

Also, the cousins or step children Mary helped raise would have had a strong relationship with and felt responsible to care for Mary (who could not love Mary as their own mother).

No, this was an act of love by Jesus and proves nothing else.

The victors write the history - I’m sure dissenting opinions from most writers were not preserved and promoted. Tertullian is an exception, but he often promoted core dogma.

These examples are erroneous. I check both NIV and KJV translations
2 Samuel 6:23 does not use ‘until’ but uses to/unto the day of her death. Very different meaning.
**1 Timothy 4:13 ** This is a future tense use of until which signifies a review but not a certain change of state. The Mathew verse is used past tense.
**1 Corinthians 15:25 ** This is also a future tense use of until, and thus an invalid example.

While it is good to know the custom, the logic is faulty or evidence incomplete.
  • does having the custom to ‘know’ the intended make it a MUST that all couples practiced?
  • how long were they intended? Maybe they had not had time yet to fulfill this custom. Was the custom practiced just after being engaged, or just before the wedding?
This is pure fancy that is not explicit in scripture.
Sir,

But which scripture are you referring to? I believe you are LDS, so do you mean to say that you assert that God the Father etc. ?

Since the LDS accept other scriptures beyond that of the NT, why do you refuse the right of Catholics to reference the Fathers and Saints in the interpretation of Scripture (NT)?

It is because the Holy Spirit came down on the Virgin Mary that she is called “Spouse of the Holy Spirit” by way of spiritual conclusion. That is not fancy, but entirely contiguous with the Scriptural sense.

The LDS version relating to God the Father - now where is that in the NT? I’m sorry, but the very idea of that is so repulsive . . .

I cannot understand your “sense” in this respect sir.

Sorry.

Alex
 
Todd520;7049192:
I

Well put .I have often thought of that, but forgot that saying .Scary when you think about what could have been preserved ,intentionally or not. Wonderous that so much did get “through”.
Actually, not well put at all sir, especially not by Protestantism’s standards. Tertullian became so cynical about Christian morals that he joined a very strict sect that was all about works salvation - which is anathema to Protestantism, is it not?

To try and buttress the “ancient origins” of their beliefs, the LDS even have scholars who study the early Church Fathers to try and gather from them “supportive quotes” that defend their beliefs. But to no avail. What is lacking (which is 99%) is shrugged off as having been deleted or edited out by the Catholic Church of the day.

So say all the 19th century sects. I can also set up my own group and say the same thing to give credence to what I have concocted by way of my own “theology.”

And before you, sir, come into the foray to speak favourably of an LDS position, you should know that they believe that God the Father had sex with the Virgin Mary etc.

As John Henry Cardinal Newman put it, “Carnal minds will forever produce a carnal religion.”

As a Protestant, please do review what your founding Reformers said about the Mother of Christ before joining just anyone who wants to throw rocks at the Catholic Church.

Alex
 
Sir,

But which scripture are you referring to? I believe you are LDS, so do you mean to say that you assert that God the Father etc. ?

Since the LDS accept other scriptures beyond that of the NT, why do you refuse the right of Catholics to reference the Fathers and Saints in the interpretation of Scripture (NT)?

It is because the Holy Spirit came down on the Virgin Mary that she is called “Spouse of the Holy Spirit” by way of spiritual conclusion. That is not fancy, but entirely contiguous with the Scriptural sense.

The LDS version relating to God the Father - now where is that in the NT? I’m sorry, but the very idea of that is so repulsive . . .

I cannot understand your “sense” in this respect sir.
This thread was started by a catholic to debate the evidence.
While I am debating the merits of some arguments and evidence, I have never disputed the right for the Catholics to state their doctrine and believe it.
** I’m only suggesting they use different arguments than the ones I’ve torn down.**
I am not telling them what they believe.

The fact that the Pope said it is so, is all that is essential for it to be Catholic Doctrine.

If you remain repulsed, I suggest visiting another subforum
 
Catholics, like Protestants, claim that they are monotheists, and thay also claim that they do not worship Mary.
Code:
Fine, except that I find that Cathoilicism pushes in that direction. Take the title Mary has been given (among many): Queen of the Universe. Or, Queen of Heaven. Now, this would give many non-Catholics the idea that she is clearly a goddess, How can you be Queen of Heaven or of the entire universe and not be a goddess?

Since the early church, there has been this drive to more and more deify Mary, to make here a co-Redeemer ith Christ, and more. I know that this is denied but the evidence seem overwhelming. Does this come from the Bible? Or, was this imported from cults during those early centuries when goddesses were major players in the pantheons of pagan faiths?

 Okay. The Protestants may have gone too far in a backlash re Mary. The Catholics may have gone too far in elevating Mary to the status of the great goddess. I believe the 'Hail Mary' is the most-repeated prayer among Catholics. Shouldn't it be the 'Our Father', given to us by Christ himself?

 Such doctrines as the Immaculate Conception, the Assumption, and the perpetual virginity and total sinlessness of Mary seem to have moved the church in that direction. To those who can believe them, fine. But what about those who doubt them? Does such doubt automatically mean excommunication? 

 I, for one, prefer to regard Mary more or human terms, a model we can emulate, and less as a goddess. When I go into church and find a massive mutal of Mary across the wall or a crowned state of Mary nearby - hm! I have problems.
 
I don’t know how rejecting the perpetual virginity of Mary has anything to do with accepting Mary’s virginity prior to the birth of Christ. The Bible is very explicit that Mary was a virgin at least up until the birth of Christ. The fundamentalist and conservative Christians I know who don’t care about Mary’s perpetual virginity are very adamant about Mary’s virginity up until the birth of Christ. They accept the Nicene Creed which teaches that Christ was born of a virgin.
My point, precisely, m’friend. It was this slippery slope idea presented that those who have problems with ‘perpetual virginity’ would then find themselves atheists that I was addressing. 😉
 
This thread was started by a catholic to debate the evidence.
While I am debating the merits of some arguments and evidence, I have never disputed the right for the Catholics to state their doctrine and believe it.
** I’m only suggesting they use different arguments than the ones I’ve torn down.**
I am not telling them what they believe.

The fact that the Pope said it is so, is all that is essential for it to be Catholic Doctrine.

If you remain repulsed, I suggest visiting another subforum
OK Sir, - then I apologise to you.

I was only repulsed by what I remember of the LDS view of how Christ became man.

If I was out of order by bringing in something here that did not relate to the argumentation of the thread, then I apologise for that as well.

Alex 😦
 
Sir,

But which scripture are you referring to? I believe you are LDS, so do you mean to say that you assert that God the Father etc. ?

Since the LDS accept other scriptures beyond that of the NT, why do you refuse the right of Catholics to reference the Fathers and Saints in the interpretation of Scripture (NT)?
We may accept scripture outside the bible, but we understand that we can’t use that scripture as a prooftext for those who do not accept it; that is, we can use quotes from the Book of Mormon to show what we believe, but not to prove that those beliefs are ‘true.’

By the same token, while it is find for you to use Holy Tradition and outside writings to show what your beliefs are, and why you believe, it is unreasonable for you to use them as proof of why we should, when our position is that they are incorrect.
It is because the Holy Spirit came down on the Virgin Mary that she is called “Spouse of the Holy Spirit” by way of spiritual conclusion. That is not fancy, but entirely contiguous with the Scriptural sense.

The LDS version relating to God the Father - now where is that in the NT? I’m sorry, but the very idea of that is so repulsive . . .

I cannot understand your “sense” in this respect sir.

Sorry.

Alex
First, define what you think the “LDS version’ is. If it is what I suspect, I will correct you and tell you that it is NOT the 'LDS version.”

I then predict that you will either say “whew…I’m very glad I was mistaken; how nice to know that you believe that Mary was a virgin at Jesus’ birth” or some form of “you don’t know what you’re talking about, you do TOO believe that…” So far, most people go for the second option. I dunno why–except for the same reason the National Enquirer still sells more copies than the National Geographic.

The truth tends to be more boring, I guess.
 
At the Annunciation, Mary questioned the Angel Gabriel in how this could be so…as she was already a consecrated virgin, espoused to God. This setting implied that she did already willed ‘no’ to loosing her virginity. God honored that and through the Angel said the Holy Spirit would overshadow her. She did not break her vow. God honored her sole consecration to Him.

Mary was and is perpetual virgin. God is her spouse. Her sole mission on earth was to bring the Savior and Redeemer to mankind with undivided heart, soul and mind.
 
Catholics, like Protestants, claim that they are monotheists, and thay also claim that they do not worship Mary.
Code:
Fine, except that I find that Cathoilicism pushes in that direction. Take the title Mary has been given (among many): Queen of the Universe. Or, Queen of Heaven. Now, this would give many non-Catholics the idea that she is clearly a goddess, How can you be Queen of Heaven or of the entire universe and not be a goddess?

Since the early church, there has been this drive to more and more deify Mary, to make here a co-Redeemer ith Christ, and more. I know that this is denied but the evidence seem overwhelming. Does this come from the Bible? Or, was this imported from cults during those early centuries when goddesses were major players in the pantheons of pagan faiths?

 Okay. The Protestants may have gone too far in a backlash re Mary. The Catholics may have gone too far in elevating Mary to the status of the great goddess. I believe the 'Hail Mary' is the most-repeated prayer among Catholics. Shouldn't it be the 'Our Father', given to us by Christ himself?

 Such doctrines as the Immaculate Conception, the Assumption, and the perpetual virginity and total sinlessness of Mary seem to have moved the church in that direction. To those who can believe them, fine. But what about those who doubt them? Does such doubt automatically mean excommunication? 

 I, for one, prefer to regard Mary more or human terms, a model we can emulate, and less as a goddess. When I go into church and find a massive mutal of Mary across the wall or a crowned state of Mary nearby - hm! I have problems.
Dear Roy5,

Mary is “Queen” in the sense that the mother of King Solomon was honoured when she came to visit her son - that is the corollary.

I prefer to see God becoming Man in Christ so that we, as humans, can partake of Theosis/divinization. That does not make us “gods” but it does make us fully alive as members of the Body of Christ.

God is not so far removed from us and the human condition. His willingness to become one with us in Christ proves that.

As for Marian devotion, it is enthusiastic. But the Hail Mary, as all Marian devotion, allows us to be taken by Mary to her Son. The Hail Mary has the Name of Jesus as its focus and also the Divine Incarnation and his plan of salvation as its inspiration.

I never come away from the Hail Mary or other Marian devotions without a deepened sense of union with Christ in His Humanity, His Wounds He suffered for our sakes and the memory that, as the Fathers indicated, when she stood under the Cross of her Son, she was drenched in His blood.

To be close to Mary means to be close to Jesus. Frankly, I’ve tried to go to Jesus without Mary and I now go to Jesus with Mary.

The latter is, in my experience, by far the better way.

Alex
 
At the Annunciation, Mary questioned the Angel Gabriel in how this could be so…as she was already a consecrated virgin, espoused to God. This setting implied that she did already willed ‘no’ to loosing her virginity. God honored that and through the Angel said the Holy Spirit would overshadow her. She did not break her vow. God honored her sole consecration to Him.

/QUOTE]

I’m sorry, but she never said what you said she said. At least not as recorded in the Bible.
 
Actually, not well put at all sir, especially not by Protestantism’s standards. Tertullian became so cynical about Christian morals that he joined a very strict sect that was all about works salvation - which is anathema to Protestantism, is it not?
Mormons aren’t Protestants. In fact, our view of salvation is a lot closer to Catholicism than to Calvinism–or any strictly belief based system. No 'name it and claim it" ideology over here.
To try and buttress the “ancient origins” of their beliefs, the LDS even have scholars who study the early Church Fathers to try and gather from them “supportive quotes” that defend their beliefs. But to no avail. What is lacking (which is 99%) is shrugged off as having been deleted or edited out by the Catholic Church of the day.
Care to share? That’s quite a sweeping statement.
So say all the 19th century sects. I can also set up my own group and say the same thing to give credence to what I have concocted by way of my own “theology.”

And before you, sir, come into the foray to speak favourably of an LDS position, you should know that they believe that God the Father had sex with the Virgin Mary etc.
(sigh)

No we don’t.
As John Henry Cardinal Newman put it, “Carnal minds will forever produce a carnal religion.”

As a Protestant, please do review what your founding Reformers said about the Mother of Christ before joining just anyone who wants to throw rocks at the Catholic Church.

Alex
Now that is an ironic statement indeed, given what you wrote about Mormons in this post.
 
My point, precisely, m’friend. It was this slippery slope idea presented that those who have problems with ‘perpetual virginity’ would then find themselves atheists that I was addressing. 😉
Well, Christians didn’t have problems with the Virgin Mary’s perpetual virginity for centuries. One who did in the fourth had a discussion with St Jerome who, in his letter, made short shrift of his argumentation.

If the argument here is that perpetual virginity is somehow “inhuman,” then I would suggest that this is the application of a modern idea that goes against continence and virginity as being outdated.

Where in the New Testament are these values considered outdated? Certainly, not by either the Lord Jesus or Paul.

What is the authority or reasoning behind rejecting the perpetual virginity of Mary which was also upheld by the Reformers (who attacked much in Catholic teaching - this was not one of the things they rejected, although they could have).

The fact is that her perpetual virginity was accepted by the early Church, the later Church, the Fathers and the Reformers. And the New Testament is quite clear about the value of virginity. The “brothers” thing has never caused any of the Fathers or Reformers to swerve in their belief on the perpetual virginity of Mary.

The onus is on those who reject that perpetual virginity to show why this should be an issue with Christian believers today when it never was in the past (beyond the confused religious environs of the 19th century in which all manner of sects claiming fantastic stuff arose).

Alex
 
Roy5;7049370:
Your understanding of how Catholics view Mary is perfectly understandable and I do not blame anyone. However, regardless of what Christian tradition we follow, all of us have to be careful as to what we ‘perceive’ is the truth about any religion and/or a specific teaching. However, my friend simply because you find that Catholicism pushes in that direction about Mary does not make it right or correct, if you know what I mean? All of us are guilty of such perceptions about others faith and teachings.

God Bless

Your reply will be appreciated. Thanks.
I understand his point…it took me quite awhile to understand the Catholic POV on this. I have to admit that from the outside looking in it looks very much like worship…as if Mary is being worshiped as a goddess, and for the very reasons that were brought up.

I have since come to an understanding (probably also erronious, but closer to what I think Catholicism means) of the place Mary and the Saints actually have; not as ‘goddess’ or as idols, but as intercessors for you with God the Father and His Son. It’s worship of God at a remove, out of respect for Him, not out of divine worship for her. Mary is easier to love and relate to; the Saints shared mortal tribulations and are closer to mere sinners like us; they might understand the problems–or rather, the sinner might feel more comfortable thinking so. Mary and the Saints are not worshipped instead of worshipping God; they are used to help in the worship of God.

At any rate, that’s my impression of it.

I don’t agree with it, but I think I’m closer to an understanding of the idea, anyway. At least, I don’t see y’all as idol worshipers putting Mary in as a female goddess!
 
Status
Not open for further replies.
Back
Top