I was asking this in response to the notion that everything must be explicitly explained by Scripture. That is that problem with Protestantism and the false** doctrine of Sola Scriptura.**
Were you aware that, in the reply window, your quote contains more code than text? This makes it hard to separate the points you are making from all the brackets, slashes and code commands.
Ok…you are aware that Mormons are not sola scripturians, right? This isn’t an issue of 'if it ain’t in the bible, it ain’t so." It IS an issue of using sources that both parties to the conversation accept as valid. Just as you would not accept me using the Doctrine and Covenants to prove one of our doctrines to be Truth, it’s not logical for you to insist that I accept a Tradition that my beliefs specifically tell me are…more or less…apostate as a source for Truth. We are both confined to those things we agree are valid. I’ll take anything written before that period of time that Catholics claim public revelation ceased. I’ll take valid sociological information about the culture of the time. I’ll take a lot of things—but don’t ask me to accept, as valid, the very teachings and writings that we claim are heretical/apostate.
…in return, I won’t ask you to accept the Pearl of Great Price as an authoritative source of gospel truth.
<snip remainder of your post, for space only…did you know that they count code commands as ‘characters,’ for the purpose of determining how long a post can be? I didn’t either, until now!
So…your position is that we modern readers of scripture are actually eavesdroppers, of a sort, and cannot then make determinations regarding the subjects they address using the words they write, since we are not the intended recipients?
Sort of begs the question of why they were written, that position, especially the gospels…but leave that for now.
If this is so, then why are your conclusions about what they mean any better than mine, especially since you seem to be the one who is making all the assumptions regarding what those words mean?
Remember, I’m not utterly throwing out the idea that Mary could have remaind a virgin all her life. My point is that the scriptures do not really support the idea that she was. Please note; I use words like 'probably, and possibly…" because nothing that we have from those early days is absolutely difinitive…but because of what the scriptures do not say, and because of the cutlure of the time, the probabilities lean a lot further to Mary having been fully a wife to Joseph rather than not.
…and there is nothing I can see that would make her being fully a wife to Joseph (and thus being in full obedience to the Law of Moses, which was still very much in play during most of her life time) would mean that she was NOT worthy of being Jesus’ mother. Or that Jesus’ Atonment is ain any way lessened…or even affected.
In fact, I wonder how Jesus could have been really ‘fully human,’ if He wasn’t raised in a fully observant and religious household. I don’t think that He was raised in a bubble; it’s just my opinion, of course, but there was a reason God had His Son be born an infant, and learn, and grow ‘from grace to grace,’ as a human child does. Wasn’t part of that reason to experience the full range of human, mortal experience? Wouldn’t that, in those days, have included, well, siblings? (just a passing thought…)