Catholics and The History of Slavery

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This was one of the canons in the Synod of Gangra.
Under pretext of religion. The synod is condemning the binding of consciences as if to teach that slaves are somehow acting contrary to Christian piety to obey their masters. A gloss cites I Timothy 6:1 and Titus 2:10. It is an injunction against those who would convince slaves they are dishonourable or impious unless they rebel.
 
The condition doesn’t mention opression so no.
 
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The Council of Chalcedon was in the 400s. The social situation was different then from what it is now.
 
there are Hindus in India who have risen up against oppression by Catholics as I have read in the paper.
Either you or the paper is getting it exactly backwards. It’s radical Hindus persecuting Christians.
 
Yet it was only in the US that the practice took on the racial “one-drop” dimension where anyone with African ancestry could be enslaved.
The history of slavery in the U.S. is quite complex but I believe there were times when, in some of the slave states, no Black people could be free citizens. In the Catholic countries in the Americas at the time, such as Brazil and Peru, there was never any explicitly racial legislation of that kind, though of course slavery was slavery everywhere.
 
So is it OK to lead Pagans, such as Hindus or Buddhists, into perpetual slavery?
You’re pointing to a proclamation made in the middle of the 15th century, speaking of war against Islamic forces that had enslaved and persecuted Christians for centuries, and were still doing so at the time the document was published.

Dum Diversas was not issued yesterday, and was not meant to apply to the present day. Please do not try to hold us to it as though it had been.
 
And a brief aside on claiming that ideas of racial inferioty were anti-Christian. While some were, the idea of the “Curse of Ham” certainly spread in strictly Christian circles.
The fact that a belief existed among Christians does not prove it is a Christian teaching. There once were Christians who thought the world was flat. That doesn’t mean the Church taught that the earth was flat. Still less that it does so now.
 
The fact that a belief existed among Christians does not prove it is a Christian teaching.
At no point did I say that it was. I agree that such teaching was not officially taught by the Church. The quote I was responding to said in part “…somehow justified by (anti-Christian) ideas of racial inferiority.” as if to say only those against Christianity had ideas of racial inferiority. Only those of a Judeo-Chrstian faith would believe the Curse of Ham was real, let one that it was referring to those of African descent.
 
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Mike_from_NJ:
How was it radically different? Would you consider it moral or merely not as evil as the slavery practiced by other nations?
Because ownership of the person in such a way that they are no longer persons in their own right — chattel slavery — that was the practice in the ancient world, could not be reconciled with the Christian belief that all human beings have equal worth and dignity under God.
How is purchasing a slave from a neighboring nation or passing it down as an inheritance not treating someone as not a person? How is allowing someone to be born, toil, be beaten, and die as a slave (which God is perfectly fine with) not denying that person his or her humanity?
Forcibly reducing innocent people into chattel slavery is always immoral.
Tell Jehovah that. Tell him that it was wrong to twice call slaves property.
Exodus 21:21 - but they are not to be punished if the slave recovers after a day or two, since the slave is their property.

Leviticus 25:45 - You may also buy some of the temporary residents living among you and members of their clans born in your country, and they will become your property.
As for perpetual servitude, if it is in place of some debt or punishment or if circumstances are such that someone has no other means of subsistence, then separating the ownership of a person’s labour from ownership of the person: a perpetual master—servant relationship, is theoretically moral if it respects the personal rights of the servant;
Give me a situation where a person serving in perpetual servitude would be morally forced into servitude AND there is no other solution to allow this person his or her subsistence while retaining his rights and dignity. Before you touch the keyboard remember three things:
  1. God knows all things. There is no system of rule or economics or community that he could know or fathom. He would know a million ways to treat someone as an employee, a human being, an equal without putting them into slavery.
  2. God told his people to do MANY things that other nations did not do so if he wanted to institute a no-beatings, no rape employer-employee set-up he could easily have done so.
  3. Saying other nations had slaves is NOT an excuse. God specifically says in Leviticus that his people were not to follow the practices of other nations.
    I’ve said it before and I’ll say it again. I find believers are very quick to limit God if it’s as a means to protect him from what is said in the Bible.
 
Replace the word “slavery” with any other kind of suffering. It’s basically the problem of evil. A parent or teacher might permit a child or student to make mistakes, even bad mistakes, in order to avoid a much worse error, or to learn from it. God does not command evil, but permits it for a greater good.
It’s not the problem the evil. There’s a bright line between saying that evil things may happen to you and telling his people to perform evil. God didn’t tell people to murder innocents and then ween them off that. He didn’t tell his people to rape and then ween them off that. He certainly didn’t tell his people to neglect the Sabbath then ween them off that. And using your analogy we don’t teach our children to hit others and then ween them off that. It’s very basic and simple at first, but a child is taught early on not to hit others.

It’s amazing to me the priorities God gives to things in the Bible. Moses doesn’t circumcise his kid in a timely manner? Almost kill him until Moses’s wife whips out a sharp rock. God gave no quarter on that. Lot’s wife turning around when escaping Sodom is exploding behind her? Instant death. Millions throughout the millennia being enslaved for life? He’ll get around to it – maybe – or just wait for the Enlightenment to do the heavy lifting for him.
 
I find believers are very quick to limit God if it’s as a means to protect him from what is said in the Bible.
Why would I need to protect God? Surely you realize that’s ridiculous. I’m trying to make sense of existence just like you are; but I do still believe in the gospel. I believe the Old Testament is divinely inspired as a record of salvation history. I do not believe slavery or divorce, or capital punishment, are good. Jesus revealed a distinction between the permissions given in the Mosaic law and the original justice of human beings (Matthew 19:8).

Peace
 
Is it not true that the Catholic Church in the USA does tolerate civil divorce. For example, before you apply for an annulment, it is REQUIRED that you obtain a civil divorce, No? this is not an anti-Catholic myth, but is a requirement set forth by the Catholic marriage annulment tribunals, No?
No. You are reversing the cause and effect. When one of the parties asks a Church tribunal to investigate and decide whether a marriage is valid, the first and primary aim of the tribunal is to effect and assist a reconciliation of the parties (if they are estranged). only IF and WHEN it is proven that this cannot be done, then one of the grounds for a declaration of nullity of a purported marriage (NOT “annulment” of a marriage. The Tribunal doesn’t MAKE the marriage null, it simply declares what it has found based on the evidence presented (and it may be mistaken, Tribunals are not infallible.) is that the spouses have permanently separated. The proof of this varies depending on the country. In the USA the usual proof is a civil divorce certificate, though there may be other proofs. The Church does not accept divorce under any circumstances whatsoever. She regards a civil “divorce” as merely a legally enforced separation of the husband and wife, who remain validly married unless and until found and declared otherwise.
 
Here is what Jesus said according to Mark:
He answered, “Anyone who divorces his wife and marries another woman commits adultery against her.”
You get a civil marriage and you are married for 15 years and have several children. You then get a civil divorce and you marry another woman after the annulment. Is this not against the spirit of what Jesus has commanded?
As Cardinal Kasper has taught: “take the case of a couple who are ten years married and have children, in the first years they had a happy marriage, but for different reasons the marriage fell apart. This marriage was a reality, and to say it was canonically null and void does not make sense to me. This is an abstract canonical construction. It’s divorce in a Catholic way, in a dishonest way.”
 
What may be good to remember is that Jesuits in the US owned slaves. Some slaves were sold to pay for the building of Georgetown University and some slaves were forced to work in the college’s construction.

The New York draft riots during the Civil War saw Catholics attacking blacks in NYC. In one notorious incident, the Catholic mobs set a black orphanage on fire and then blocked the doors to prevent any inhabitants from escaping.

This happened at a time when New York City was the seat of Catholicism in the US. in the Pulitizer prize winning history “Battle Cry of Freedom”, James MacPherson said that the NYC archbishop was at best lukewarm as to freeing of the slaves. However, it is well known that Catholics fought on both sides of the Civil War.

Georgetown University has contacted some of the descendants of the slaves sold by the college.

 
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