The ‘public intertest’ is the recognition of ‘equal rights’.
They have managed to peg it with rights. So … we are now denying their …rights.
This is begging the question. What I am saying is that there is no “right” to state-subsidized sodomy.
Heterosexual behaviors are subsidized by the state because in principle they tend to produce children, and because the care and disposition of children is a matter of public interest. There is no such possibility with homosexuality and therefore no compelling public interest. They are emphatically *not *equal in this respect, therefore equal treatment would be unjust.
Before this goes much farther I should remind you that you are duty-bound to submit to the magisterium of the Church on this and every other issue, and that your publicly attacking it in this manner verges dangerously on the sin of scandal.
who is “THEY”
and i believe the OP posted about gay marriage not sodomy or sexual habits
marriage, you know the commitment to one forever… that thing
“They” is homosexuals demanding gay “marriage.”
Gay “marriage” is by definition about state subsidized sodomy because “marriage” is an explicitly sexual institution in principle. Marriage is not separable from sexual habits.
No this is not my "Atheistic point of view. It’s the law. It’s the beauty of the separation of church and state. Don’t forget, the church is sovereign in the Unites States. It’s separate. You should read what John Adams had to say about religion when you start saying things like this country was created to be a religious state. Because it simply isn’t true. The people who came here wanted freedom from religion and the church has taken this country back. That’s what this battle ultimately is going to do. Put the church back in it’s place. In the church and homes of it’s parishioners and out of the government and courts.
(A) the Constitution clearly does not forbid people from making laws according to their moral sensibilities, it simply forbids state-established religion, and (B) I can’t speak for anyone else but I for one don’t care what the Constitution says because I regard it as a radically deficient and philosophically valueless document produced by a group of deist and Protestant Freemason traitors. So even if it were true that the Constitution demands X (and, in this case, it doesn’t), then that sounds to me like an argument that the Constitution needs to be amended to prohibit X.
The proponents of gay ‘marriage’ will not deny that hetero marriage is the bedrock of civilization. They are not proposing that we destroy hetero marriage, they’re just proposing the legalization of gay ‘marriage’.
That *is *the destruction of heteronormative marriage. If it ceases to be heteronormative it ceases to be marriage, because it is no longer concerned primarily with the creation and disposition of children. It becomes just another vehicle for distributing tax dollars to leftist constituencies.
All these people running around saying marriage is just another contract and any two consenting adults should be able to form a contract
are by their words attacking the institution of marriage. They are treating it as if it were of no more social importance than a manufacturer’s warranty on an old air conditioner – just a little more putty to be manipulated by the sovereign will.
But at any rate this is not the point of your post, is it? Even if it were true that there is no good reason to ban gay “marriage” (and it doesn’t – homosexual behaviors in general are a social menace, both in terms of morality and of public health), it doesn’t follow that gay “marriage” should be legalized. Because, after all, laws are promulgated on the basis of the common good – because they serve some common interest, not because they don’t harm the common interest. There is no common interest in attaching social, legal, or economic impetus to homosexuality. Therefore there is no basis to promulgate gay “marriage.” Therefore gay “marriage” should not be promulgated. QED.
Also, just because gay ‘marriages’ were not recognized before is no reason to continue ignoring it. After all, prior to the abolishment of slavery, the practice of slavery was common place in human history. How would abolishing the ban on gay ‘marriage’ be any different?
Why isn’t it? The fact that a thing has always and everywhere been done pretty much exactly the same way is evidence that it corresponds to some real and permanent need of human nature.
I don’t think slavery is always and everywhere an unequivocal evil, btw. We still deal with it today (literally in the form of sex slavery, operationalized in the form of “wage slavery”). Aristotle wrote of “natural slaves,” people we today would be called imbeciles – people who cannot be expected to take care of themselves. My brother is one.
… and the state can continue to do this, however, there will come a time when protecting its own self interest will mean allowing gay ‘marriages’.
What in the world is this supposed to mean?
There benefit may not be direct, but by allowing it the govt will profit from it indirectly; economically, social standing etc. Remember - the gay population would not get into hetero marriages anyway. They are not contributing to the increase in population any way.
That sounds like a good reason not to permit gay “marriage,” marriage being by nature primarily concerned with childbearing and child-raising.