“Acts 22:16 And now why tarriest thou? arise, and be baptized, and wash away thy sins, calling on the name of the Lord.
Look, it is qualified with the words, “calling on the name of Jesus””
Response: I would point out that considering that when you baptize you do it out loud in the name of the trinity, baptism in itself IS calling on the name. Notice how the moment of forgiveness of sins accords with the baptism in the verse above.
“Now look at Mar 16:16 He that believeth and is baptized shall be saved; but he that believeth not shall be damned.”
1.Response: Notice how disbelief is contrasted with belief. By the rules of logic and grammatical structure, since belief and baptism are linked, those that disbelieve and are not baptized are not saved. he shouldn’t have to re-spell that out for us.
“and this water symbolizes baptism that now saves you also—not the removal of dirt from the body but the pledge of a good conscience toward God. It saves you by the resurrection of Jesus Christ,” 1 Peter 3:21
2.Response: This is the same translation Ed used, I believe. The actual underlined word is not “symbolize” in the Greek. In this case the NAB actualy has it right for once, and I usually dislike the NAB. Here’s the verse in context with a closer translation:
1 Peter 3:18-21: “For Christ also suffered for sins once, the righteous for the sake of the unrighteous, that he might lead you to God. Put to death in the flesh, he was brought to life in the Spirit. In it he also went to preach to the spirits in prison, who had once been disobedient while God patiently waited in the days of Noah during the building of the Ark, in which a few persons, eight in all, were saved through water. This prefigured baptism, which saves you now. It is not a removal of dirt from the body but an appeal to God for a clear conscience, through the resurrection of Jesus Christ.”
In the actual Greek the word is anti-type or fulfillment of type. Since the water was literal with the presence of the spirit in the Old, how can Only the spirit be present but not literal water? Again, Catholic Sacraments ARE a pledge. They ARE an oath. That what the word sacramentum refers to, is a form of sacred oath. They are sacred oaths that bind us to Christ, hence the number 7. Just being baptized in the name of the trinity IS making a pledge.
By your reasoning, John should not have been baptizing any longer. He should have been sending people to Jesus to be Baptized.
- Response: I do understand understand your point, but it seems clear that John recognizes that he must “become less.” And since Jesus was leaving into the desert, John had no real reason to stop baptizing for repentance until Jesus returned. Again, all of his disciples were rebaptized anyway (assuming they followed Christ), so it’s irrelevant.
Acts 2:37-39
37When the people heard this, they were cut to the heart and said to Peter and the other apostles, “Brothers, what shall we do?” 38Peter replied, “Repent and be baptized, every one of you, in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins. And you will receive the gift of the Holy Spirit. 39The promise is for you and your children and for all who are far off—for all whom the Lord our God will call.”
4.Response: The above seems pretty clear.
Colossians 2:11-12: “In him you were also circumcised with a circumcision not administered by hand, by stripping off the carnal body, with the circumcision of Christ. You were buried with Him in baptism, in which you were also raised with Him through faith in the power of God, who raised Him from the dead.’”
5: Since without baptism you are not buried into his death, no salvation.
And as they went on their way, they came unto a certain water: and the eunuch said, See, here is water; what doth hinder me to be baptized? 37 And Philip said, If thou believest with all thine heart, thou mayest. And he answered and said, I believe that Jesus Christ is the Son of God. 38 And he commanded the chariot to stand still: and they went down both into the water, both Philip and the eunuch; and he baptized him. 39 And when they were come up out of the water, the Spirit of the Lord caught away Philip, that the eunuch saw him no more acts 8:36 - KJV
- It is called *baptism *in v38 after being in the water, not after the declaration of belief (which was made in v37)
- I’m throwing John 3:5 in there again, based off of the “Ephesians argument.” (Which I believe is pretty good proof that the Holy Spirit and water are one baptism).
8.Ezekiel 36:24-27: “For I will take you from the nations, gather you from all the lands, and bring you into your own land. Then I will sprinkle clean water on you, and you will be clean; I will cleanse you from all your filthiness and from all your idols. Moreover, I will give you a new heart and put a new spirit within you. And I will put My Spirit within you and cause you to walk in My statutes and you will be careful to observe My ordinances.”
The above is a messianic prophecy in the OT.Now if the water of John 3:5 is merely symbolic, why does the prophet say that it is the water which is making the individual clean from impurities and providing a new spirit to rest in him? One might protest
that this is merely in the Old Testament. But so were Jesus and Nicodemus in John 3. In fact, in John 3:10 Jesus says to Nicodemus, “You are Israel’s teacher and you do not understand these things? I tell you the truth, we speak of what we know, and we testify to what we have seen,” implying that Nicodemus should have known these truths from the Old Testament. Just like the Sadducees, we have another case of someone who, though very familiar with Scripture, missed its true interpretation. Now am I saying that baptism was practiced in the Old Testament? No, but I am saying that the Old Testament foreshadowed baptism and its spiritual effects — effects which apply to people both
in the Old and New Testament.
IN SUMMARY: All I’m saying, Ginger, is that yes, you can make some points. But when you take every single verse into account, your interpretation can be shaky. You still haven’t dealt with the Ephesians argument. In light of other Scripture, there can be only one baptism. The only way this makes sense out of Scripture and doesn’t make God a liar is if the baptism in Jesus’ name is water and the spirit. Suddenly all those verses make a bit more sense. Confirmation makes more sense. Ephesians makes more sense. You don’t have to do as many gymnastics to explain how jesus fulfills the OT baptisms of water and the spirit and yet not actually mean real water. No more craziness about “embyonic fluid.”