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diggerdomer
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Nor do you see anything in those paragraphs about the “faith of parents” required for baptism or salvation.Yes. I don’t see anything in those paragraphs about infant Baptism.
Nor do you see anything in those paragraphs about the “faith of parents” required for baptism or salvation.Yes. I don’t see anything in those paragraphs about infant Baptism.
Well, imho, 100% matters. So what about “children” who desire baptism apart from their parents’ intention?
- No, I’m using parents as an example because 99% of the time, it is parents who bring their children to be baptized.
De Maria;7219808:
No, but in accord with Catholic teaching, “adults” are those of 7 years of age or older. So “infants” in this context refers to anyone less than 7 years of age. Right? So how would you handle the non-baptized child in first grade younger than 7 years of age who wants to be baptized? Would you require the faith of the parents as an ultimatum?
- However, infants do not bring themselves to be baptized.
I’m sorry, I have no idea what you are proposing here. You seem to be saying that someone who is not Christian can baptize a Christian? What? Really? Where is this taught? Any Catholic reference for such, or is this just your own opinion? Thanks for any clarification.
- In case of an emergency, a person who is not of the faith may baptize according to the intention of the Church.
Yes, of course. I have no idea what you mean by this, or what your point is. Any clarification would be helpful.This is the intention of the Church. The Church does not intend that a pagan child be baptized Christian and then raised pagan.
You seem to be referring to or citing something.CHAPTER V
THE NECESSITY OF PREPARATION FOR JUSTIFICATION IN ADULTS, AND WHENCE IT PROCEEDS
It is furthermore declared that in adults the beginning of that justification must proceed from the predisposing grace of God through Jesus Christ, that is, from His vocation, whereby, without any merits on their part, they are called; that they who by sin had been cut off from God, may be disposed through His quickening and helping grace to convert themselves to their own justification by freely assenting to and cooperating with that grace; so that, while God touches the heart of man through the illumination of the Holy Ghost, man himself neither does absolutely nothing while receiving that inspiration, since he can also reject it, nor yet is he able by his own free will and without the grace of God to move himself to justice in His sight.
Hence, when it is said in the sacred writings:
Turn ye to me, and I will turn to you,[19] we are reminded of our liberty; and when we reply:
Convert us, O Lord, to thee, and we shall be converted,[20] we confess that we need the grace of God.
CHAPTER VI
THE MANNER OF PREPARATION
Now, they [the adults] are disposed to that justice when, aroused and aided by divine grace, receiving faith by hearing,[21] they are moved freely toward God, believing to be true what has been divinely revealed and promised, especially that the sinner is justified by God by his grace, through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus;[22]** and when, understanding themselves to be sinners, they, by turning themselves from the fear of divine justice, by which they are salutarily aroused, to consider the mercy of God, are raised to hope, trusting that God will be propitious to them for Christ’s sake; and they begin to love Him as the fountain of all justice, and on that account are moved against sin by a certain hatred and detestation, that is, by that repentance that must be performed before baptism**;[23] finally, when they resolve to receive baptism, to begin a new life and to keep the commandments of God.
Of this disposition it is written:
He that cometh to God, must believe that he is, and is a rewarder to them that seek him;[24] and, Be of good faith, son, thy sins are forgiven thee;[25] and, The fear of the Lord driveth out sin;[26] and, Do penance, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ, for the remission of your sins, and you shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost;[27] and, Going, therefore, teach ye all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost, teaching them to observe all things whatsoever I have commanded you;[28] finally, Prepare your hearts unto the Lord.[29]
May God bless you as well!
Sincerely,
De Maria
It “goes without saying” because it has never been said (at least by the Church).It goes without saying that one either believes or is being brought by a believer or is being baptized by the agent of a believer.
No. God is acting on behalf of the child grace is given. God is therefore the Child’s agent. The parents are acting on their faith which was given them by grace. So again faith does not preceed graceIf it were grace alone, the child would not need to be brought in for Baptism. But the “agency” which you mentioned, must have the faith to bring the child in to be Baptized. Therefore, faith must precede baptism.
God does not define faith. Faith is. And Faith is a gift of Grace.God defines faith. And faith is the first grace which one receives.
And faith is the expression of GraceWorks in obedience to the commands of God are an expression of faith.
Grace is far more than that Grace is God’s gift of himself to us.God is not grace. Grace is the good which God shares with us.
So far nothing with this discussion of Grace negates man’s excercise of will. You confuse it with faith. Grace is freely God giving of himself to us and with it the faith to believe you can accept it or reject it. However as the catachism says the “only reasonable response is acceptance”.It would be totally out of line with Catholic Teaching. Because the Church takes into account the exercise of our WILL.
First. Where? Second You confuse two things. Initial Grace with sanctifying Grace. One lets you in the door so to speak and the Other continues your life of faith. Both can be accepted or rejected However Grace is the key for both.The Church makes a distinction between the concept of “all is grace” and “grace alone”. Once we have engaged our will in order to cooperate with God’s grace, it is no longer called God’s grace alone. But grace through faith and works.
Faith and works are an expression of Grace. You misrepresent me on this statement. Grace still stands.Good, then inadvertently you have shot down the idea of Grace alone,
I know many and you seem to confuse Grace with Faith.Ask any Protestant
I didn’t say that faith precedes grace. I said that faith precedes baptism.No. God is acting on behalf of the child grace is given. God is therefore the Child’s agent. The parents are acting on their faith which was given them by grace. So again faith does not preceed grace
Ok, you’re losing me. What?!God does not define faith.
Yes. Faith is a grace. Faith is a gift of God which WE do.Faith is. And Faith is a gift of Grace.
No. Faith is the expression of our will.And faith is the expression of Grace
Sanctifying grace is a participation in the life of God. God has given Himself to us in the Person of the Holy Spirit who is our gift during Baptism. But God is not grace. The Holy Spirit gives us grace, gives us Sanctifying Grace.Grace is far more than that Grace is God’s gift of himself to us.
Yes. The idea that we are either saved or justified by grace ALONE contradicts the exercise of the will to cooperate with God’s grace.So far nothing with this discussion of Grace negates man’s excercise of will.
I don’t know what you are talking about.You confuse it with faith.
As long as that doesn’t equate Grace with God. Because Grace is a substance.Grace is freely God giving of himself to us
That is true. But that does not say anything about grace ALONE.and with it the faith to believe you can accept it or reject it. However as the catachism says the “only reasonable response is acceptance”.
Everywhere. That is why the Church does not teach GRACE ALONE. I can’t prove a negative. If you claim that the Church teaches GRACE ALONE, then it is your burden to prove.First. Where?
The initial predisposing grace of God is an Actual Grace. This stands in contrast to the Sanctifying Grace we receive during the Sacraments. HOWEVER, we never cease to receive Actual Grace. Even after we are Baptized, we continue to receive actual graces.Second You confuse two things. Initial Grace with sanctifying Grace. One lets you in the door so to speak and the Other continues your life of faith. Both can be accepted or rejected However Grace is the key for both.
But not Grace ALONE.Faith and works are an expression of Grace. You misrepresent me on this statement. Grace still stands.
Faith is a grace:I know many and you seem to confuse Grace with Faith.
In baptism. Adults are saved by grace through their own faith.The point is, you don’t see anything in those paragraphs about people being saved by the faith of their parents (which you claimed).
But I see it here in the prerequisite for the Sacraments:Nor do you see anything in those paragraphs about the “faith of parents” required for baptism
The Church does not teach salvation by Grace Alone if that’s what you’re getting at.or salvation.
As far as I know, a child will not be baptized a Catholic, even if the non-Catholic parents agree. They must first convert and then the entire family will be baptized. No child will be baptized unless the parents or guardians will raise them in the faith and if they aren’t Catholic, how can they raise them in the faith? You can’t give a faith that you don’t have:De Maria;7219808 said:1. No, I’m using parents as an example because 99% of the time, it is parents who bring their children to be baptized.
Well, imho, 100% matters. So what about “children” who desire baptism apart from their parents’ intention?
1251 Christian parents will recognize that this practice also accords with their role as nurturers of the life that God has entrusted to them.52
1255 For the grace of Baptism to unfold, the parents’ help is important. So too is the role of the *godfather *and godmother, who must be firm believers, able and ready to help the newly baptized - child or adult on the road of Christian life.55 Their task is a truly ecclesial function (officium).56 The whole ecclesial community bears some responsibility for the development and safeguarding of the grace given at Baptism.
Wrong. Age of reason is not equivalent to age of adulthood. A child of 7 will not be baptized against the will of the parents.No, but in accord with Catholic teaching, “adults” are those of 7 years of age or older. So “infants” in this context refers to anyone less than 7 years of age. Right?
It doesn’t matter what I want. It is the Church who recognizes the GOD given right of the parents to decide what is right for their child.So how would you handle the non-baptized child in first grade younger than 7 years of age who wants to be baptized? Would you require the faith of the parents as an ultimatum?
1256 The ordinary ministers of Baptism are the bishop and priest and, in the Latin Church, also the deacon.57 **In case of necessity, anyone, even a non-baptized **person, with the required intention, can baptize58 , by using the Trinitarian baptismal formula. The intention required is to will to do what the Church does when she baptizes. The Church finds the reason for this possibility in the universal saving will of God and the necessity of Baptism for salvation.59I’m sorry, I have no idea what you are proposing here. You seem to be saying that someone who is not Christian can baptize a Christian? What? Really? Where is this taught? Any Catholic reference for such, or is this just your own opinion? Thanks for any clarification.
We seem to be talking past each other. When you entered the discussion, I thought you were siding with David Flimmer ( I think I spelled that right) who is making the claim that faith is not necessary for any Sacrament and that anyone can baptize any child at any time.Yes, of course. I have no idea what you mean by this, or what your point is. Any clarification would be helpful.
He is making his claim based upon the Catechism which I just posted. Yet, you seem to be unaware of this doctrine which says that in an emergency, even a non Cathollic can baptize a catechumen as long as they make the same intention as the Church? So, I have no idea what you and I are disagreeing upon.
Sincerely,
De Maria
No.Except in the extreme case of baptism in danger of death.
Yes or no?
Wishful thinking. I have a life away from Catholic Answers. A job, a family. But I get around to most of my threads.I’ll answer that question, as the OP seems to have quit the field.
There is no “extreme” case in which Baptism is valid. ANY Baptism is valid if it has the five basic components of any Sacrament. In the case of Baptism, these five components are:
- Valid recipient (in this case, any unbaptized person)
- Valid minister (in the case, any person, regardless of belief or faith. This person does not even need to be Baptized him/her self).
- Valid matter (in this case, clear water)
- Valid intent of the minister (“to do what the Catholic Church does,” even if the minister has absolutely no idea what that is).
- Valid form (in this case, the Trinitarian form - “I Baptize you in the name of the Father, and the Son, and the Holy Spirit” while applying clear water to the head).
In the case of a person in danger of death, a First Responder or Emergency Room doctor or nurse may conditionally Baptize a patient. Such a Baptism may be illicit under Canon Law, but it is perfectly valid.
Faith is presupposed. Therefore it is absolutely required.However, faith is absolutely not required.
Yes, but whose faith was the Muslim Nurse exercising when she baptized that infant, her own or her employer’s?A Catholic Hospital might institute a policy to conditionally Baptize every infant who was admitted with a life-threatening condition. A Muslim nurse working at a Catholic hospital (and who has an honest intent to uphold the expectations of her employer) might institute this policy upon an infant patient who was the son/daughter of Muslim parents, even against their explicit will (they might be screaming in protest as their Muslim child was Baptized against their will by a Muslim nurse fulfilling the expectations of her Christian employer). But - guess what - this is still a perfectly valid (though HIGHLY illicit) Baptism. If the child died an hour later, the child would be saved. This is doctrine.
This is what YOU don’t understand in contradiction of Catholic Teaching. The Church does not teach that it is by Grace ALONE.This is what *de Maria *does not understand. Grace alone saved this child. Grace alone saves us all.
NOT according to Catholic Teaching.
The very same thing he was citing. The infallible teaching of the Church concerning justification in the Council of Trent:You seem to be referring to or citing something.
What?
No. You said Faith is the 1st gift of Grace.I didn’t say that faith precedes grace. I said that faith precedes baptism.
Faith exist. It just is. The fact that you can have faith in anything is proof of that. However, to have faith in God it must be 1) given to us by God. And 2) made to be understood by the recipient. Both of which God does. The third part of it is our reception of it which seems only reasonable to accept. Note I did not say a foregone conclusion. However, Grace Gifted us Faith and the ability to aprehend what faith it is.Ok, you’re losing me. What?!
Again two fold you emphasise the latter and ignore the former. 1)Faith is a gift. Its a complete package. 2) we assent or we do not.Yes. Faith is a grace. Faith is a gift of God which WE do.
Not entirely. You couldn’t have received it unless it was first given. Our will shows its assent to the Faith already given.No. Faith is the expression of our will.
No disagreement hereSanctifying grace is a participation in the life of God. God has given Himself to us in the Person of the Holy Spirit who is our gift during Baptism.
I disagree. I believe the Overshadowing of the Most High and Mary full of Grace showed that she was in reciept of God entirely for the incarnation.But God is not grace
Yes for continuation. but again you ignore the initial grace.The Holy Spirit gives us grace, gives us Sanctifying Grace.
I don’t agree that grace is a substance. Grace is an attribute or character of God.Grace is a spiritual substance which God can pour into our hearts.
Not at all. That is how you see it but thats not it. Grace gives us the gift of faith. It makes it perceivable to us. And holding fast to it by assent of our will does not lessen it.IYes. The idea that we are either saved or justified by grace ALONE contradicts the exercise of the will to cooperate with God’s grace.
Grace is not a substance but a characteristic of God.As long as that doesn’t equate Grace with God. Because Grace is a substance.
Saying Grace alone is like saying God alone. I think you emphasise too much you in salvation. Are we talking about sanctification or salvation? Though salvation encorporates sanctification salvation is an act of God not man. It was Jesus who suffered and died. It was he that fulfilled God’s plan. Not us. Jesus is entirely responsible. Our assent to it verifies that he gave us Grace 1) of the Gift and 2) to understand it enought to accept.That is true. But that does not say anything about grace ALONE.
The church teaches we are saved by Grace. Our assent to the faith and sanctification are all operations of Grace.Everywhere. That is why the Church does not teach GRACE ALONE. I can’t prove a negative. If you claim that the Church teaches GRACE ALONE, then it is your burden to prove.
Nor will you find in scripture the term trinity. Yet it doesn’t make it less so now does it?All I can tell you is that I find no Catholic Doctrine on salvation by Grace Alone
That is not what that passage means.Therefore, we are not saved by Grace Alone.
Yes it does.The initial predisposing grace of God is an Actual Grace. This stands in contrast to the Sanctifying Grace we receive during the Sacraments.
That is trueHOWEVER, we never cease to receive Actual Grace
yes. You see how reliant we are on grace?Even after we are Baptized, we continue to receive actual graces.
Then are you suggesting you can save your self of your own accord?But not Grace ALONE.
Faith is an expression of Grace and is a grace. Not a concoction of your own.Faith is a grace:
which agrees with what I’ve said.CCC Search Result - Paragraph # 158 (779 bytes ) preview document matches
**The grace of ****faith **opens “the eyes of your hearts” to a lively understanding of the contents of Revelation: that is, of the totality of God’s plan and the mysteries of faith, of …
URL: scborromeo.org/ccc/para/158.htm
diggerdomer;7221530:
That is only the case for a *licit *Baptism (one done according to the rules of the Church, which are mutable).As far as I know, a child will not be baptized a Catholic, even if the non-Catholic parents agree.
But a Baptism (or, indeed, any Sacrament) does not have to be *licit *to be valid. The Doctrine of the Sacrament is not contingent upon human rules. And the rules change, but Doctrine remains the same.
I’ve asked you about the validity of a clearly illicit Baptism which absolutely precludes the possibility of Faith on the part of anyone involved. You have responded to many questions, but you have not responded to this one.
According to the rules (Canon Law, the GIRM, etc) this is *highly *illicit, but according to the Doctrine of the Church it is absolutely valid.
Doctrine says that Baptism (or any Sacrament) is *valid *if it has five valid components: subject, matter, form, minister, and intent. This is doctrine. This list does not include faith (because that’s not Doctrine).
Then there are the rules, which determine if the Sacrament is licit or not. But rules are not Doctrine. If a Bishop ordains a priest at night (under power of darkness), apart from an emergency, it is *illicit *because the rules say don’t do that. But the guy is still 100% a priest. Doctrine trumps rules every time - no exceptions. God does not own a copy of the Code of Canon Law, and he never checks it online. If God’s rules are followed (ie, Doctrine) then nothing can prevent his Grace from being efficacious.
So, I ask again - is the child who receives an illicit but valid baptism (where nobody has any Christian faith whatsoever) saved?
Don’t get hung up on the rules. Focus on the Doctrine.
If that child is saved, s/he is saved by Grace alone (because there is no faith present). If that child is saved by Grace alone, then we are all saved by Grace alone.
Correcto. Because faith is the first grace which God gives us. Why? Because without faith it is impossible to please Him.No. You said Faith is the 1st gift of Grace.
I did not deny that faith exists, so why did you say this?Faith exist. It just is. The fact that you can have faith in anything is proof of that.
Correct.However, to have faith in God it must be 1) given to us by God.
Not necessarily:And 2) made to be understood by the recipient.
But the proof that we must make an effort of will in order to believe is the fact that God has given us every reason to believe, and yet many DON’T.Both of which God does. The third part of it is our reception of it which seems only reasonable to accept. Note I did not say a foregone conclusion. However, Grace Gifted us Faith and the ability to aprehend what faith it is.
Because you ignore the latter and emphasize the former to a point of contradicting Catholic Teaching. The Church does not teach salvation by grace ALONE.[Again two fold you emphasise the latter and ignore the former. 1)Faith is a gift. Its a complete package. 2) we assent or we do not.
I didn’t say it wasn’t given to us. What I said is that we must exercise it by an act of will.Not entirely. You couldn’t have received it unless it was first given. Our will shows its assent to the Faith already given.
Great!No disagreement here
God is not grace:I disagree. I believe the Overshadowing of the Most High and Mary full of Grace showed that she was in reciept of God entirely for the incarnation.
Nope. I have already mentioned that the initial grace is faith. And that it is an actual grace.Yes for continuation. but again you ignore the initial grace.
It is all three. From the same paragraph referenced above:I don’t agree that grace is a substance. Grace is an attribute or character of God.
I didn’t say that it lessened it. I said that we are not saved by Grace ALONE. The Church does not teach that doctrine because it would make us mere puppets being pulled by strings, without a free will to exercise.Not at all. That is how you see it but thats not it. Grace gives us the gift of faith. It makes it perceivable to us. And holding fast to it by assent of our will does not lessen it.I
Yes, that is true. So I repeat the teaching of the Church:Grace is not a substance but a characteristic of God.
Saying Grace alone is like saying God alone.
You emphasize too much what YOU think. It doesn’t matter what you think in this subject. It matters what the Church teaches. And the Church does not teach salvation by grace ALONE.I think you emphasise too much you in salvation.
Either.Are we talking about sanctification or salvation?
Our assent and our acceptance is the part of the equation which you are ignoring. It is because of our assent and our acceptance that the Church does not refer to it as sanctification nor salvation by grace ALONE.Though salvation encorporates sanctification salvation is an act of God not man. It was Jesus who suffered and died. It was he that fulfilled God’s plan. Not us. Jesus is entirely responsible. Our assent to it verifies that he gave us Grace 1) of the Gift and 2) to understand it enought to accept.
But not by Grace ALONE.The church teaches we are saved by Grace.
Correct. All is grace.Our assent to the faith and sanctification are all operations of Grace.
But you do find it in Catholic Teaching. If you did not find it in Catholic Teaching, it certainly would be less so.Nor will you find in scripture the term trinity. Yet it doesn’t make it less so now does it?
Yes, it is.That is not what that passage means.
I never said we weren’t. But you are forgetting that many have received the very same graces and rejected them to their own condemnation.Yes it does. That is true yes. You see how reliant we are on grace?
That is not a teaching of the Catholic Church. God calls us and gives us grace to accept His call and exercise His Gifts. Therefore it is God who saves us IFThen are you suggesting you can save your self of your own accord?
I didn’t say it was a concoction of my own. I said that faith is a grace.Faith is an expression of Grace and is a grace. Not a concoction of your own.
Not with the idea of grace ALONE. Which contradicts the teaching of the Catholic Church.which agrees with what I’ve said.
De Maria;7223003:
Baptism (one done according to the rules of the Church, which are mutable).That is only the case for a *licit *
But a Baptism (or, indeed, any Sacrament) does not have to be *licit *to be valid. That is true. But not one sacrament will be valid without faith.
**1123 **“The purpose of the sacraments is to sanctify men, to build up the Body of Christ and, finally, to give worship to God. Because they are signs they also instruct. They not only presuppose faith, but by words and objects they also nourish, strengthen, and express it. That is why they are called ‘sacraments of faith.’”
Anyone who is baptized without faith will be condemned. Anyone, any atheist or other non-baptized person, who baptizes a child without the intent of expressing the faith of the Church, is simply performing a blasphemy.
1256 The ordinary ministers of Baptism are the bishop and priest and, in the Latin Church, also the deacon.57 In case of necessity, anyone, even a non-baptized person, with the required intention, can baptize58 , by using the Trinitarian baptismal formula. The intention required is to will to do what the Church does when she baptizes. The Church finds the reason for this possibility in the universal saving will of God and the necessity of Baptism for salvation.59
What is that “will to do what the Church does when she baptizes”, in your opinion?
Very true! Now listen to the Word of God:The Doctrine of the Sacrament is not contingent upon human rules. And the rules change, but Doctrine remains the same.
Hebrews 11:6
But without faith it is impossible to please God. For he that cometh to God, must believe that he is, and is a rewarder to them that seek him.
You understand neither because you confuse validity and licitness. First of all, the infalible doctrine of the Church says:I’ve asked you about the validity of a clearly illicit Baptism which absolutely precludes the possibility of Faith on the part of anyone involved. You have responded to many questions, but you have not responded to this one.
CHAPTER VIII
HOW THE GRATUITOUS JUSTIFICATION OF THE SINNER BY FAITH IS TO BE UNDERSTOOD
But when the Apostle says that man is justified by faith and freely,[44]** these words are to be understood in that sense in which the uninterrupted unanimity of the Catholic Church has held and expressed them, namely, that we are therefore said to be justified by faith, because faith is the beginning of human salvation,** the foundation and root of all justification, without which it is impossible to please God[45] and to come to the fellowship of His sons; and we are therefore said to be justified gratuitously, because none of those things that precede justification, whether faith or works, merit the grace of justification.
For, if by grace, it is not now by works, otherwise, as the Apostle says, grace is no more grace.[46]
Therefore, we can’t be baptized without faith because baptism is the Sacrament where we are first justified. And the Church teaches that faith is the root of justification.
cont’d
But you are neglecting the faith of the believer who validly baptized the child illicitly!According to the rules (Canon Law, the GIRM, etc) this is *highly *illicit, but according to the Doctrine of the Church it is absolutely valid.
You say that because you read the list like a laundry. You place no understanding in the words listed. Of the five requirements, the one most explicitly tied to faith is “intent”. What is it that the Church intends to do?Doctrine says that Baptism (or any Sacrament) is *valid *if it has five valid components: subject, matter, form, minister, and intent. This is doctrine. This list does not include faith (because that’s not Doctrine).
And God’s rules require FAITH:Then there are the rules, which determine if the Sacrament is licit or not. But rules are not Doctrine. If a Bishop ordains a priest at night (under power of darkness), apart from an emergency, it is *illicit *because the rules say don’t do that. But the guy is still 100% a priest. Doctrine trumps rules every time - no exceptions. God does not own a copy of the Code of Canon Law, and he never checks it online. If God’s rules are followed (ie, Doctrine) then nothing can prevent his Grace from being efficacious.
You’re question is based upon a false understanding of doctrine. Therefore, it would be useless to respond to it.So, I ask again - is the child who receives an illicit but valid baptism (where nobody has any Christian faith whatsoever) saved?
Don’t get hung up on the letter of the word. Focus on the Spirit which is being conveyed.Don’t get hung up on the rules. Focus on the Doctrine.
Not even a child is saved by grace alone in Baptism. A child who is baptized has been administered a Sacrament of faith in God. And whomsoever commanded or was administering that sacrament was expressing the pre-existing faith of the Church. Without which, no valid Sacrament would exist.If that child is saved, s/he is saved by Grace alone (because there is no faith present). If that child is saved by Grace alone, then we are all saved by Grace alone.