And Mormons recognize those problems. For us, something doesn’t have to be “perfect” to be useful. I’m always glad to find out that God feels that way about me.
So you are saying that in Acts 9, the meaning is that they didn’t see anyone, but they heard the voice, and in Acts 22 the same word is used, but now the meaning is that they saw a light but didn’t “understand” the voice?
On the one hand, it is obvious that the word “hear” is sometimes used to connote understanding–it’s a common English idiom, too. But on the other hand, when “hear” is used to connote understanding, usually it also implies actual hearing of the words. Both of these passages are obviously meant to describe the physical reaction of the people with Paul, so it would seem very odd if they were using “hear” in a metaphorical sense (to understand) juxtaposed with “see” when describing what they physically saw.
Of course, “see” can also mean “understand,” so maybe Paul was saying they didn’t understand the light and didn’t understand the voice?
Check out some good Catholic biblical commentaries. Scholars like Fr. Raymond Brown and others are not this extreme.
So you don’t think Hindus teach ANY truth?
That’s fine. But since Paul often referred to the Church as the Temple of God, I think I have more warrant for my interpretation than you.
The difference, of course, is that Mormons actually claim to restore apostate Christianity. Jews or pagans wouldn’t have anything to do with such an argument, so why would anyone pay attention to such charges coming from them?
Let me break it down for you.
- You seem to be demanding some kind of ancient document where someone announces, “All Christianity has now gone apostate in the third year of the reign of Emperor _____.”
- What if there were such a document? Wouldn’t it’s very existence prove the claim false, since the writer would presumably NOT be apostate?
- If such a document had been produced, the Catholic response would have been, “We disagree.” So if outsiders like Jews and pagans started waving said document around, trying to use it to disprove Catholicism, the Catholics would have simply blown them off, and probably would have claimed the document was a forgery.
- How would such a document have survived? Why would Catholic monks bother copying such a thing?
So, my conclusion is that your demands are absolutely silly, and show that you have no experience, whatsoever, dealing with historical evidence. Really. You seem to have no clue what kind of thing to expect.
I’ve already explained that we don’t interpret those passages the same way you do, so please don’t try to change the subject. There have been plenty of threads on the Mormon view of God and Jesus, if you want to look them up.
Really, Prodigal, this conversation has just become silly. The topic was about how Mormons interpret the “gates of hell” promise. I explained that we interpret it differently than you, because we believe “the gates of hades” means “the gates of hades,” while you claim it is a metaphor for something else.
And yet, you keep asking questions and making charges like this one that imply that Mormons are claiming that Jesus didn’t keep his promises.
An analogous situation would be if I asserted my interpretation of 2 Thess. 3, you replied about your alternative interpretation, and then I went on and on saying things like:
“But if Paul’s prophecy of an apostasy were false, wouldn’t that prove that the whole New Testament is false, and so Catholicism is false?”
But I wouldn’t make an argument like that, because it would be RIDICULOUS.
I am not “losing my cool,” but it is a bit frustrating to talk to someone who doesn’t seem to take into consideration anything I have to say.