M
mcliffor
Guest
An Anthro professor made this statement in class the other day when a student asked about priestly celibacy:
“As a Roman Catholic, I know a good deal about the history of celibacy. In it’s first stage, it meant a priest couldn’t marry, and this was so that church property wouldn’t leave the hands of the church. But at the council of Trent, it came to mean not just that a priest couldn’t marry, but that he couldn’t have sex at all.”
What the heck is he talking about??? I think it’s clear he’s trying to justify getting rid of priestly celibacy, but where would he be getting this information from. I had heard the property argument before, but has anyone ever heard the argument that priests were initially allowed to have sex so long as they didn’t marry?
“As a Roman Catholic, I know a good deal about the history of celibacy. In it’s first stage, it meant a priest couldn’t marry, and this was so that church property wouldn’t leave the hands of the church. But at the council of Trent, it came to mean not just that a priest couldn’t marry, but that he couldn’t have sex at all.”
What the heck is he talking about??? I think it’s clear he’s trying to justify getting rid of priestly celibacy, but where would he be getting this information from. I had heard the property argument before, but has anyone ever heard the argument that priests were initially allowed to have sex so long as they didn’t marry?