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MysticMissMisty
Guest
(sorry, 20 minute timeout)
I suppose another way to look at the very first passage I cited where God says that He does not rejoice in the death of a man but wishes him to repent, He may mean that He does not get sadistic pleasure out of a man’s death in the sense of bearing personal hatred ffor him because of his sin against Him and against men, as it is common for men to do in similar situations, but that He would rather the man repent before he is condemned to die for his sin. Understanding Hebrew patterns of speech, would this be a viable interpretation? Does this passage necessarily have to mean that God in no way at all rejoices in a man’s death or in anything connected to it?
Are there indeed any other theological arguments that would contradict such a statement either in Scripture or in Tradition?
I might actually put forth here a passage from the Apocalypse wherein it states that the smoke of the burning of the damned goes up befroe God forever and ever. Here it would seem that it might be implied that God is in some way rejoicing/being happy/pleased at the deaths of (the condemnation/punishment of) the unrighteous. What do folks think on this point?
Another way to look at this is that hte not rejoicing in a man’s death means not rejoicing sadistically in the man’s suffering and in his losing his life out of personal outright hatred for him, out of misdirected hatred, if you will, of his very being or his very soul. Perhaps the point of both of these passages that have been cited so far to argue the other side of the coin is that personal hatred of an enemy is inherently unrighteous/evil and, when relating to one’s enemies, it is never to be indulged. We may rejoice that an enemy has gotten deserved justice, but we may never rejoice in his personal suffering, saying something like, “I’M GLAD YOU SUFFERED!” in a hateful tone/spirit. Again, thoughts?
I suppose another way to look at the very first passage I cited where God says that He does not rejoice in the death of a man but wishes him to repent, He may mean that He does not get sadistic pleasure out of a man’s death in the sense of bearing personal hatred ffor him because of his sin against Him and against men, as it is common for men to do in similar situations, but that He would rather the man repent before he is condemned to die for his sin. Understanding Hebrew patterns of speech, would this be a viable interpretation? Does this passage necessarily have to mean that God in no way at all rejoices in a man’s death or in anything connected to it?
Are there indeed any other theological arguments that would contradict such a statement either in Scripture or in Tradition?
I might actually put forth here a passage from the Apocalypse wherein it states that the smoke of the burning of the damned goes up befroe God forever and ever. Here it would seem that it might be implied that God is in some way rejoicing/being happy/pleased at the deaths of (the condemnation/punishment of) the unrighteous. What do folks think on this point?
Another way to look at this is that hte not rejoicing in a man’s death means not rejoicing sadistically in the man’s suffering and in his losing his life out of personal outright hatred for him, out of misdirected hatred, if you will, of his very being or his very soul. Perhaps the point of both of these passages that have been cited so far to argue the other side of the coin is that personal hatred of an enemy is inherently unrighteous/evil and, when relating to one’s enemies, it is never to be indulged. We may rejoice that an enemy has gotten deserved justice, but we may never rejoice in his personal suffering, saying something like, “I’M GLAD YOU SUFFERED!” in a hateful tone/spirit. Again, thoughts?
