K
kaybelle
Guest
I am a non-Catholic who has been coming to Mass and have given serious consideration to becoming a member of the Catholic church.
I also have a fairly severe gluten intolerance, such that my health would not permit me to partake of the bread of the Eucharist.
I understand that there are accommodations made available for those who out of medical necessity must refrain from that Sacrament (this is not my main concern). I have done some fairly extensive reading on the topic and recently read this:
How can a transubstantiated host, which is no longer bread, still act like wheat in the human body?
While the entire substance of bread has indeed been transubstantiated into the entire substance of Christ (Body, Blood, Soul, Divinity) such that the bread and wine cease to exist, their appearances remain, and those appearances act upon the senses just as the substance that they properly belong to naturally would. We sometimes say that Body and Blood of Christ are veiled by the appearances of bread and wine but ‘appearances’ means more than just what we see… ‘Appearances’…means those nonessential properties that exist in another thing. So those remaining (or attached) appearances…belonging to wheat and wine do act upon the senses, are measurable, and do bring about the effects natural to the substance to which they belong. So the Eucharist looks like bread and wine, tastes like bread and wine, and acts like bread and wine, but in substance it is fully Christ and Christ only.
(catholicbookwriter.com/goldenarrow/catholic/catholic-celiac-conundrum/#identifier_9_736)
As I was thinking about this point, I had a thought occur to me which I thought I would share so that I can put it out of my mind if it is blatantly false:
Would it be doctrinally incorrect to say that the host is fully bread and fully Christ in the same way that Jesus Christ was fully man and fully God?
Thank you!
I also have a fairly severe gluten intolerance, such that my health would not permit me to partake of the bread of the Eucharist.
I understand that there are accommodations made available for those who out of medical necessity must refrain from that Sacrament (this is not my main concern). I have done some fairly extensive reading on the topic and recently read this:
How can a transubstantiated host, which is no longer bread, still act like wheat in the human body?
While the entire substance of bread has indeed been transubstantiated into the entire substance of Christ (Body, Blood, Soul, Divinity) such that the bread and wine cease to exist, their appearances remain, and those appearances act upon the senses just as the substance that they properly belong to naturally would. We sometimes say that Body and Blood of Christ are veiled by the appearances of bread and wine but ‘appearances’ means more than just what we see… ‘Appearances’…means those nonessential properties that exist in another thing. So those remaining (or attached) appearances…belonging to wheat and wine do act upon the senses, are measurable, and do bring about the effects natural to the substance to which they belong. So the Eucharist looks like bread and wine, tastes like bread and wine, and acts like bread and wine, but in substance it is fully Christ and Christ only.
(catholicbookwriter.com/goldenarrow/catholic/catholic-celiac-conundrum/#identifier_9_736)
As I was thinking about this point, I had a thought occur to me which I thought I would share so that I can put it out of my mind if it is blatantly false:
Would it be doctrinally incorrect to say that the host is fully bread and fully Christ in the same way that Jesus Christ was fully man and fully God?
Thank you!