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santaro75
Guest
CAn anyone enlighten me on the history of clerical celibacy in the Catholic Church.
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Todd_Easton
Guest
There’s an article in the online 1917 Catholic Encyclopedia called “Celibacy of the Clergy” that describes the history of this discipline in the Church.
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Carl
Guest
Among the opening paragraphs of that article cited above:
*Although we do not find in the New Testament any indication of celibacy being made compulsory either upon the Apostles or those whom they ordained, we have ample warrant in the language of Our Saviour, and of St. Paul for looking upon virginity as the higher call, and by inference, as the condition befitting those who are set apart for the work of the ministry. In Matt., xix, 12, Christ clearly commends those who, “for the sake of the kingdom of God”, have held aloof from the married state, though He adds: “he who can accept it, let him accept it”. St. Paul is even more explicit:
I would that all men were even as myself; but every one hath his proper gift from God … But I say to the unmarried and to the widows, it is good for them if they so continue, even as I.
And further on:
But I would have you to be without solicitude. He that is without a wife is solicitous for the things that belong to the Lord, how he may please God. But he that is with a wife, is solicitous for the things of the world, how he may please his wife: and he is divided. And the unmarried woman and the virgin thinketh on the things of the Lord, that she may be holy both in body and spirit. But she that is married thinketh on the things of this world how she may please her husband. And this I speak for your profit, not to cast a snare upon you, but for that which is decent and which may give you power to attend upon the Lord without impediment. (I Cor., vii, 7-8 and 32-35.)*
Which, I think, says it all. Celibacy is desireable but not compulsory, at least in the earliest Church.
*Although we do not find in the New Testament any indication of celibacy being made compulsory either upon the Apostles or those whom they ordained, we have ample warrant in the language of Our Saviour, and of St. Paul for looking upon virginity as the higher call, and by inference, as the condition befitting those who are set apart for the work of the ministry. In Matt., xix, 12, Christ clearly commends those who, “for the sake of the kingdom of God”, have held aloof from the married state, though He adds: “he who can accept it, let him accept it”. St. Paul is even more explicit:
I would that all men were even as myself; but every one hath his proper gift from God … But I say to the unmarried and to the widows, it is good for them if they so continue, even as I.
And further on:
But I would have you to be without solicitude. He that is without a wife is solicitous for the things that belong to the Lord, how he may please God. But he that is with a wife, is solicitous for the things of the world, how he may please his wife: and he is divided. And the unmarried woman and the virgin thinketh on the things of the Lord, that she may be holy both in body and spirit. But she that is married thinketh on the things of this world how she may please her husband. And this I speak for your profit, not to cast a snare upon you, but for that which is decent and which may give you power to attend upon the Lord without impediment. (I Cor., vii, 7-8 and 32-35.)*
Which, I think, says it all. Celibacy is desireable but not compulsory, at least in the earliest Church.
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mercygate
Guest
Get a copy of Christian Cochini’s book, The Apostolic Origins of Priestly Celibacy.
It is clear that there were both married and unmarried clergy in New Testament times and in the early Church. There is also an early tradition of married clergy living in continence after ordination. Paul hints of this in I Corinthians 7, when he says: “Let those who have wives live as though they had none.”
With the passage of time, the clear advantage of celibacy, both for spiritual and for practical reasons became undeniable and was adopted as the norm. This standard was retained in the West.
It is clear that there were both married and unmarried clergy in New Testament times and in the early Church. There is also an early tradition of married clergy living in continence after ordination. Paul hints of this in I Corinthians 7, when he says: “Let those who have wives live as though they had none.”
With the passage of time, the clear advantage of celibacy, both for spiritual and for practical reasons became undeniable and was adopted as the norm. This standard was retained in the West.
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Br.Rich_SFO
Guest
It starts with the Scriptures:
Mentioned by Christ:
Matthew 19:12 “For there are eunuchs, who were born so from
their mother’s womb: and there are eunuchs, who were made so by
men: and there are eunuchs, who have made themselves eunuchs for
the kingdom of heaven. He that can take it, let him take it.”
Recommended by St. Paul:
1 Corinthians 7:32-33 “He that is without a wife, is solicitous
for the things that belong to the Lord, how he may please God.
But he that is with a wife, is solicitous for the things of the
world, how he may please his wife: and he is divided.”
From there moves into Church law starting in the 300’s.
Mentioned by Christ:
Matthew 19:12 “For there are eunuchs, who were born so from
their mother’s womb: and there are eunuchs, who were made so by
men: and there are eunuchs, who have made themselves eunuchs for
the kingdom of heaven. He that can take it, let him take it.”
Recommended by St. Paul:
1 Corinthians 7:32-33 “He that is without a wife, is solicitous
for the things that belong to the Lord, how he may please God.
But he that is with a wife, is solicitous for the things of the
world, how he may please his wife: and he is divided.”
From there moves into Church law starting in the 300’s.
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santaro75
Guest
can anyone sum up when the church madated it and for what reason?
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Br.Rich_SFO
Guest
See my post above.
For the same reason St. Paul recomends it.
It begins to be mandated in certain areas in the 300’s and becomes more and more universal to about 800-1000 where it becomes universal law in all parts of the Church.
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santaro75
Guest
Thanks,
I guess i heard somewhere that it was mandated universally after there were property battles with wives of dead priests and the church. I heard that as a result of this the church no longer allowed clergy to get married.
can anyone shed liight on this?
I guess i heard somewhere that it was mandated universally after there were property battles with wives of dead priests and the church. I heard that as a result of this the church no longer allowed clergy to get married.
can anyone shed liight on this?
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mercygate
Guest
That was something of a “remote cause.” There were abuses in the middle ages which made it necessary to mandate (again) in the 10th century what was long been normative in the West.
Did you check the Encyclopedia article? Cochini’s book? Articles on the home page of Catholic Answers? This is a well documented and easily accessible subject.
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